2013年6月30日星期日

The Best Cisco 642-887 Exam Training materials

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Exam Code: 642-887

Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Core Network Services)

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NO.1 Which three conditions can occur when metering traffic using a dual token bucket traffic policing QoS
mechanism on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. conform
B. pass
C. violate
D. exceed
E. burst
F. matched
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 When implementing MPLS DS-TE on Cisco IOS XR routers, all aggregate Cisco MPLS TE traffic is
mapped to which class type by default?
A. class-type 0 (bandwidth global pool)
B. class-type 1 (bandwidth subpool)
C. class-type 2 (bandwidth priority)
D. class type class-default (bandwidth best-effort)
Answer: A

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NO.3 When configuring LLQ (strict priority queue) on a traffic class using the Cisco IOS XR priority command
on a Cisco ASR9K router, which additional QoS command is required for this traffic class?
A. shape
B. police
C. random-detect
D. bandwidth
Answer: B

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NO.4 On a Cisco IOS XR router, which mechanism protects the router resources by filtering and policing the
packets flows that are destined to the router that is based on defined flow-type rates?
A. LLQ
B. LPTS
C. Committed Access Rate
D. Control Plane Policing
E. Management Plane Protection
F. NetFlow
G. ACL
Answer: B

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NO.5 DS-TE implementations on Cisco routers support which bandwidth pool(s) and class type(s)? (Choose
two.)
A. global pool only
B. subpool only
C. global pool and subpool
D. class-type 0 only
E. class-type 1 only
F. class-type 0 and class-type 1
Answer: C,F

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NO.6 Which field in the MPLS shim header is used to support different QoS markings?
A. IP precedence
B. DSCP
C. EXP
D. ToS
E. S
F. Label
Answer: C

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NO.7 On Cisco routers, how is hierarchical QoS implemented?
A. Within the parent policy, reference another child policy using the policy-map command.
B. Within the child policy, reference another parent policy using the policy-map command.
C. Use the policy-map command within a service-policy to implement nested policy-maps.
D. Within the parent policy-map, reference another child policy-map using the service-policy command.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the correct formula for determining the CIR.?
A. CIR = Bc/Tc
B. CIR = Bc x Tc
C. CIR = Tc/Bc
D. CIR = Bc + Be
E. CIR = Tc/(Bc+Be)
F. CIR = (Bc+Be)/Tc
Answer: A

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NO.9 On the Cisco IOS XR, which MQC configuration is different than on the Cisco IOS and IOS XE?
A. On the Cisco IOS XR, WRED can only be applied in the output direction.
B. On the Cisco IOS XR, marking can only be applied in the input direction.
C. On the Cisco IOS XR, LLQ can be applied in the input or output direction.
D. On the Cisco IOS XR, LLQ can use up to four priority queues: level 1, level 2, level 3, and level 4.
Answer: C

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NO.10 On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed
bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 351-080

Exam Name: Cisco (CCIE Data Center Written Beta Exam)

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NO.1 Which component of the Cisco Nexus 7010 architecture provides out-of-band management,
an
always-on microprocessor for disaster recovery, and remote restart capabilities?
A. central arbiter
B. Connectivity Management Processor
C. supervisor engine
D. dedicated service modules
Answer: B

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NO.2 On a Cisco Nexus 7000, a CoPP can be applied separately to each VDC.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three statements best describe the Cisco Unified Fabric solution for the data center?
(Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches provide the capability to consolidate LAN and SAN traffic on
a unified fabric over Ethernet.
B. The unified fabric is delivered through technologies such as FCoE and DCB.
C. FCoE allows transmission of Fibre Channel traffic over Ethernet by encapsulating native Fibre
Channel frames into GRE and transporting them across the Ethernet network.
D. FCoE allows consolidating Fibre Channel traffic from multiple VSANs into the same Ethernet
VLAN to be transported across the fabric. PFC ensures lossless transport of the FC traffic over
Ethernet.
E. PFC allows user priorities to be defined on a single physical link, each of which can have its
own logical lane that can be paused independently of the others.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches are best positioned at which layer?
A. access layer, as an end-of-row switch for FCIP and iSCSI aggregation
B. distribution layer, with multiples of 10 Gb/s ports
C. access layer, as a top-of-rack switch for server I/O consolidation with FCoE
D. aggregation layer, supporting virtual security and application services
Answer: C

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NO.5 The persistent storage service (PSS) is used by which function?
A. storage of log files across reloads of the system
B. storage of license files in the backplane EEPROM
C. storage of the process-specific state for stateful process recovery
D. storage of core dump files from crashed processes
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three components does a data center network layer have? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco GSR
B. Cisco CRS-1
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 2000
F. Cisco ASR 9000
G. Cisco Nexus 5000
Answer: C,E,G

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NO.7 Which two Cisco devices form the virtual access layer in the Cisco Data Center Architecture?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000
B. Cisco Nexus 5000
C. Cisco Nexus 1010
D. Cisco Nexus 2000
E. Cisco Nexus 1000V
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Refer to the components below. Which data center design layer contains these
components?
Cisco UCS 6100 Fabric Interconnect
Cisco Nexus 1000V
Cisco UCS 5100 Blade Chassis
A. the Virtualization layer
B. the Management layer
C. the Compute layer
D. the Services layer
Answer: C

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NO.9 On a 32-port 10 Gigabit Ethernet module, each set of four ports can handle 10 Gb/s of
Bandwidth.
What can you use the rate-mode parameter for?
A. to limit the speed on any port
B. to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the first port
C. to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the last port
D. to limit the speed on all ports
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two options describe virtualized multi-tenancy? (Choose two.)
A. dedicated infrastructure for each tenant
B. shares a common infrastructure between tenants
C. agreement between tenants with rules about sharing DC resources
D. tenants using virtualization technologies to separate from each other
E. data centers using virtualization technologies to separate tenants
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: 640-911

Exam Name: Cisco (Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking)

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NO.1 What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose
four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Answer: A,C,D,H

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NO.2 What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every
person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP .
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access
layer? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3
Ethernet frame?
A. start of frame
B. EtherType
C. frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263?
A. 11011101101
B. 10011101111
C. 10011101011
D. 11010001111
E. 10111101111
Answer: B

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NO.7 When deploying 10BASE-2 Ethernet, what is the maximum cable length?
A. 100 meters
B. 100 feet
C. 150 meters
D. 150 feet
E. 185 meters
F. 185 feet
Answer: E

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NO.8 Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
Answer: E

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NO.9 What is the function of the Tab key on the Cisco Nexus Operating System command-line
interface?
A. redisplays the current command line
B. deletes all characters from the cursor to the end of the command line
C. clears the terminal screen
D. completes a partially entered command if enough characters are present
E. moves the cursor one word to the right
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet
forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 648-375

Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Express Foundation for Systems Engineers (CXFS) Exam)

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NO.1 What should you keep in mind when working with antennas?
A. Antennas can be used as transmit and receive antennas on the same radio
B. All antennas broadcast the horizontal plane
C. Isotropic antennas broadcast equally in all directions
D. An antennas that converts electrical energy into RF waves is called a receive antenna
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are working with a company that has an infrastructure based on lightweight access points
using the advanced feature set. A new security requirement demands real-time asset tracking for
800 assets. Which product or solution will provide this function?
A. Wireless Control System
B. Wireless Location Appliance
C. Wireless LAN Solution Engine
D. Wireless LAN Services Module
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of these is a benefit of an integrated security management system?
A. It provides configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting capabilities across a wide range of
security products.
B. It leverages existing network management systems such as HP OpenView to lower the cost of
implementation.
C. It integrates security management capabilities into the router or switch.
D. It integrates security device management products and collects events on an "as needed" basis
to reduce management overhead.
E. It provides a single point of contact for all security configuration tasks thereby enhancing the
return on investment.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which VMS Security Monitor tool allows you to monitor data for patterns of attacks from one
machine to a list of targets?
A. Advanced Correlation Engine
B. Management Center for CSA
C. CiscoWorks Dashboard
D. Advanced Notification Engine
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are two of the four key benefits of the ISR platforms? (Choose two)
A. monitoring, analysis, and response
B. investment protection
C. guest access
D. voice and mobility ready
E. storage virtualization
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What should you do to prevent VLAN hopping?
A. Enable all unused ports and place them into an unused VLAN
B. Set unused access ports to trunking ON
C. Disable some unused ports
D. Disable all unused ports and place them into an unused VLAN
Answer: D

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NO.7 In the plan phase, network readiness assessment addresses the optimal technologies for
supporting its business requirements and objectives
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.8 What should you keep in mind when using a midspan PSE?
A. It can be used to deliver PoE over 100BASE-T connections
B. It can implement power delivery only over the spare wires of the copper cabling
C. It defines terminology to describe a port that acts as a PSE to a powered device
D. It states that power can be delivered by an end-point PSE
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing,
and operations
B. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and
maintenance
E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations
sign-off
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the Dynamic Configuration Tool?
A. to allow for the mass deployment of devices with minimal configurations
B. to provide an easy way to check for known bugs in IOS releases
C. to determine the correct IOS image to support your modules or blades
D. to test router configurations virtually prior to implementing them in your production network
E. to verify that hardware such as modules are compatible with your chassis
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 644-066

Exam Name: Cisco (Routing and Switching Solutions for System Engineers - RSSSE)

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NO.1 Which two of the following are unique advantages of the PD/PSE Cisco Catalyst Compact
Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Due tothefanlessdesign,they can be placed in the workplace and drastically reduceinhousecabling
needs.
B. They diminish thepower infrastructure by supporting PoE+ input and PoE output at the same
time.
C. They support 16 PoE output ports.
D. They support PoE+ output
Answer: A,B

Cisco exam dumps   644-066   644-066 questions
5. Which two of the following statements correctly describe Cisco Prime features that help
improve
operational efficiency? (Choose two.)
A. The CiscoPrime userinterface is optimized fortouchscreens.
B. Integratedworkflows and best practices enable quick and error free deployment.
C. TrustSec,MediaNet,and EnergyWise services are only configured outside Work CentersinCisco
Prime LMS.
D. All components ofthe Cisco Prime for Enterprise product portfolio provide a common look and
feel, which simplifies usability.
Answer: B,C

Cisco test questions   644-066   644-066 test answers   644-066
6. What does not need to be considered when looking into the customer workflow?
A. How can customer and service collaborate and start video communication?
B. How many different switch products are in use at the customer network?
C. How can the service partner instantly connect with outsourced engineers?
D. How does the customer access the online software solutions?
Answer: C

Cisco   644-066 demo   644-066
7. Which of the following statements regarding the WAAS vendor landscape is not true?
A. The benefits of Cisco WAAS including scalability, the comprehensive productportfolio, and VDI
vendor-validated optimization.
B. Riverbed lacks routing functionality.
C. Riverbed is the market leader.
D. Bluecoat is number two in the WAAS market.
Answer: B

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8. Which three of the following statements correctly describe the Cisco router portfolio? (Choose
three.)
A. AllCisco ISRG2 routers provide network automation, consolidated VPN,and security features.
B. The Cisco 1900 router series supports Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business
Edition 6000.
C. The Cisco 800 and 1900 router series both offer entry-level application optimization features.
D. The Cisco 1900,2900,and 3900 router series provide video and collaboration features.
E. The Cisco 2900 and 3900 router series support Cisco UCS Express.
Answer: A,D,E

Cisco pdf   644-066   644-066 test   644-066
9. Which two of the following statements correctly describe Cisco WAAS Mobile? (Choose two.)
A. The CiscoWAAS Mobile Server is based on a UCS-C series server and provides up to 200
Mb/s WAN throughput.
B. One Cisco WAAS Mobile server can serve up to 10,000 concurrent mobile users.
C. The Cisco WAAS Mobile client is optimized for smartphones with 3G or 4G connections.
D. The Cisco WAAS Mobile Server provides up to 1 Gb/s LAN throughput
Answer: A,C

Cisco   644-066   644-066
10. Which three of the following statements about competitors in Cisco in the switching market
are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Mostof the competitors offer me-too point products only; they lack an overall solution
framework
similar to theCisco Borderless Network.
B. Ciscohas a market share of about 70% in the Layer 2 and Layer 3 managed switch market.
C. Competitors efficiently support the BYOD solution.
D. HP is one of the strongest competitors with a market share of about 20%.
E. Juniper has a market share of less than 3%.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which two are components of Cisco MediaNet that simplify network assessment, monitoring,
and
troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic Simulator, based on IPSLA
B. MediaPing
C. Traffic Simulator, based on ping
D. MediaTrace
Answer: A,D

Cisco   644-066 test questions   644-066   644-066 original questions

NO.3 Which two of the following statements correctly describe how Cisco Prime NCS simplifies
troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Smart Interactions allow network operators to open service requests to Cisco TAC in a
controlled manner. Relevant information such ascurrent configuration, last configuration changes,
and events can be attached bya single mouse click.
B. Itenables network operators to open instant messaging conversations with Cisco TAC
engineers.
C. It automatically configures a Cisco AnyConnect SSL tunnel, which allows CiscoTAC engineers
to connect to malfunctioning devices.
D. It can collect crucial information such as associated devices and their current IPaddress and
status based on the user’s name.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which three of the following are successful examples of strategic IT investments improving
operational agility? (Choose three.)
A. Acompany implements collaboration solutions, which simplified information exchange.
B. A company offers mobile email to its employees, who can then react faster to requests.
C. A company provides support for a BYOD solution, whichincreases the investment and requires
network upgrade, but provides limitedimprovements compared to a well-known remote access
solution.
D. A company changes its security strategy from "lock down" to "secure access from
anywhere",so that users are "always-on"and can easily workremotely.
E. A company implements EnergyWise solutions, which drastically reduce energy costs.
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: 500-005

Exam Name: Cisco (Installing Cisco TelePresence Video Immersive Systems)

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NO.1 Which two options describe the functions of the TX9000 codec? (Choose two.)
A. registers with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. registers with Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server
C. allows a presenter to share a presentation from their laptop
D. converts still JPEG files to motion video
E. provides a bridge to third-party conference systems
F. captures and streams video for surveillance purposes
Answer: A,C

Cisco   500-005   500-005   500-005 test

NO.2 What is the build number for the following Cisco TelePresence System image?
cmterm-CTS.1-9-1-68R-K9.P2.cop.sgn
A. 191
B. 68
C. K9
D. 1-68R
E. P2
F. 68R
Answer: B

Cisco   500-005   500-005 answers real questions

NO.3 Which device is connected to the TX9000 AV expansion box for video input?
A. presentation (TS4) codec
B. collaboration/presentation display
C. center (TS1) codec
D. built-in video splitter
E. left (TS2) and right (TS3) codec
Answer: A

Cisco dumps   500-005 exam   500-005 original questions   500-005 test questions

NO.4 When a laptop was connected to the TX9000 presentation codec and the Presentation icon
was
tapped on the Cisco TelePresence Touch 12, the presentation sharing failed. Which option
corrects this issue?
A. The video presentation ports need to be enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The presentation sharing can only be done via an immersive Cisco TelePresence endpoint.
C. The configuration field 'Allow Presentation Sharing using H.239' needs to be enabled under the
device configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The configuration field 'Allow Presentation Sharing using BFCP' needs to be enabled under the
device configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When configuring the Device Information section of a new TX9000 in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager, which two selections are required to be checked? (Choose two.)
A. Use Device Pool Calling Party Transformation CSS
B. Retry Video Call as Audio
C. Ignore Presentation Indicators (internal calls only)
D. Allow Control of Device from CTI
E. Logged Into Hunt Group
F. Remote Device
Answer: B,D

Cisco exam dumps   500-005   500-005 answers real questions

NO.6 Which component is used to calibrate the TX9000 system microphones?
A. Cisco TelePresence Administration GUI
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration GUI
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite Administration GUI
D. Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Administration GUI
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is causing the Cisco TelePresence Touch 12 to show Project/LCD in error?
A. The HDMI cable is not connected between the LCU and the Active Collaboration data display.
B. The serial cable is not connected between the LCU and the Active Collaboration data display.
C. There is a cabling problem with the PS1 codec to the Active Collaboration data display.
D. The Active Collaboration data display is powered off.
Answer: B

Cisco   500-005 exam prep   500-005   500-005 exam simulations

NO.8 Which TX9000 display choice is best for reducing possible issues with viewing angles for
conference participants?
A. LCD
B. plasma
C. LED
D. CRT
E. HDTV
Answer: B

Cisco   500-005 exam   500-005   500-005 demo

NO.9 The TX9000 fails to boot completely and is stuck on Step 5 of seven steps as displayed on the
Cisco TelePresence Touch 12. Which step should be implemented to correct the problem?
A. Update the IP address and reboot the TX9000 system.
B. Update the Cisco Option Package file, restart the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
TFTPservice, and reboot the TX9000 system.
C. Update the NTP server address and reboot the TX9000 system.
D. Delete the TX9000 system from Cisco Unified Communications Manager, add the system back
into Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and reboot the TX9000 system.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 156-915

Exam Name: CheckPoint ( Accelerated CCSE NGX (156-915.1)......)

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NO.1 In NGX, what happens if a Distinguished Name (ON) is NOT found in LADP?
A. NGX takes the common-name value from the Certificate subject, and searches the
LADP account unit for a matching user id
B. NGX searches the internal database for the username
C. The Security Gateway uses the subject of the Certificate as the ON for the initial
lookup
D. If the first request fails or if branches do not match, NGX tries to map the identity to
the user id attribute
E. When users authenticate with valid Certificates, the Security Gateway tries to map the
identities with users registered in the extemal LADP user database
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915 exam simulations   156-915

NO.2 By default, when you click File >- Switch Active File from SmartView Tracker, the
SmartCenter Server
A. Opens a new window with a previously saved log file
B. Purges the current log file, and starts a new log file
C. Purges the current log, and prompts you for the new log's mode
D. Saves the current log file, names the log file by date and time, and starts a new log file
E. Prompts you to enter a filename, then saves the log file
Answer: D

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NO.3 You want to upgrade a cluster with two members to VPN-1 NGK The SmartCenter
Server and both members are version VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG FP3, with the latest
Hotfix. What is the correct upgrade procedure?
1. Change the version, in the General Properties of the gateway-cluster object
2. Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, and reboot after upgrade
3. Run cpstop on one member, while leaving the other member running. Upgrade
one member at a time, and reboot after upgrade
4. Reinstall the Security Policy
A. 3,2,1,4
B. 2,4,3,1
C. 1,3,2,4
D. 2,3,1,4
E. 1,2,3,4
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have two Nokia Appliances one IP530 and one IP380. Both Appliances have
IPSO 39 and VPN-1 Pro NGX installed in a distributed deployment Can they be
members of a gateway cluster?
A. No, because the Gateway versions must not be the same on both security gateways
B. Yes, as long as they have the same IPSO version and the same VPN-1 Pro version
C. No, because members of a security gateway cluster must be installed as stand-alone
deployments
D. Yes, because both gateways are from Nokia, whether they have the same VPN-1 PRO
version or not
E. No, because the appliances must be of the same model (Both should be
IP530orIP380.)
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915   156-915   156-915

NO.5 The following is cphaprob state command output from a ClusterXL New mode High
Availability member
When member 192.168.1.2 fails over and restarts, which member will become
actrve?
A. 192.168.1.2
B. 192.168.1.1
C. Both members' state will be standby
D. Both members' state will be active
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915   156-915

NO.6 Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the
SmartDashboard?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Map
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-915   156-915 exam prep   156-915

NO.7 You are preparing to configure your VolP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two
other objects should you have created first?
A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the proxy is installed
B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP
phone network
C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the gatekeeper is installed
D. An object to represent the Q931 service origination host, AND an object to represent
the H.245 termination host
E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which
the transmission router is installed
Answer: C

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NO.8 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the
traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities,
including Remote Access Communities. How should you configure the VPN match
rule?
A. Internal_clear>- All_GwToGw
B. Communities >- Communities
C. Internal_clear>- External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>- Communitis
E. Internal_clear>-All_communitis
Answer: E

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NO.9 Gail is the security administrator for a marketing firm. Gail is working with the
networking team, to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to
audio-streaming material from the internet. The networking team asks Gail to
check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway.
Which SmartConsole application should Gail use to check these objects and rules?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartViewTracker
D. SmartDashboard
E. SmartViewStatus
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-915 certification   156-915   156-915   156-915

NO.10 You are reviewing SmartView Tracker entries, and see a Connection Rejection on a
Check Point QoS rule. What causes the Connection Rejection?
A. No QoS rule exists to match the rejected traffic
B. The number of guaranteed connections is exceeded. The rule's action properties are
not set to accept additional connections
C. The Constant Bit Rate for a Low Latency Class has been exceeded by greater than

NO.11 When you change an implicit rule's order from "last" to "first" in Global
Properties, how do you make the change effective?
A. Close SmartDashboard, and reopen it
B. Select install database from the Policy menu
C. Select save from the file menu
D. Reinstall the Security Policy
E. Run fw fetch from the Security Gateway
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915   156-915

NO.12 Jack's project is to define the backup and restore section of his organization's
disaster recovery plan for his organization's distributed NGX instaliation. Jack
must meet the following required and desired objectives .
* Required Objective The security policy repository must be backed up no less
frequent~ than every 24 hours
* Desired Objective The NGX components that enforce the Security Policies should
be backed up no less frequently than once a week
* Desired Objective Back up NGX logs no less frequently than once a week
Jack's disaster recovery plan is as follows. See exhibit.
Jack's plan:
A. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective
B. Does not meet the required objective
C. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective
D. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives
Answer: D

CheckPoint pdf   156-915 demo   156-915
Explanation: Logs can be viewed after exported.

NO.13 Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties
screen, as shown in the exhibit.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateway when a user starts an HTTP
connection to a Web site the user tries to FTP to another site using the command
line. What happens to the user?
The....
A. FTP session is dropprd by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. User is prompted from the FTP site only, and does not need to enter username nad
password for the Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.
Answer: B

CheckPoint exam prep   156-915   156-915   156-915

NO.14 Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a
custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application
includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is
malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to
accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via atext message to her cellular
phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following options is
MOST appropriate for Ophelia's requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-915 exam simulations   156-915   156-915 original questions   156-915 braindump

NO.15 Which command allows you to view the contents of an NGX table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>-
B. fw tab -t <tablename>-
C. fw tab -u <tablename>-
D. fw tab -a <tablename>-
E. fw tab -x <tablename>-
Answer: B

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NO.16 After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, When a user starts an HTTP
connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the command
line. What happens to the user? The:
A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule
B. user is prompted from that FTP site on~, and does not need to enter username and
password for Client Authentication
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule2
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway aqain
Answer: B

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NO.17 You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55
Gateway to SecurePlalform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate. Which package is needed
in the repository before upgrading?
A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro
B. VPN-1 and FireWall-1
C. SecurePlalform NGX R60
D. SVN Foundation
E. VPN-1 ProfExpress NGX R60
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915 demo   156-915 test answers   156-915

NO.18 Eric wants to see all URLs' ful destination path in the SmartView Tracker logs, not
just the fully qualified domain name of the web servers. For Example, the
information field of a log entry displays the URL
http://hp.msn.com/css/home/hpcl1012.css. How can Eric best customize SmartView
Tracker to see the logs he wants? Configure the URl resource, and select
A. "transparent" asthe connection method
B. "tunneling"as the connection method
C. "optimize URL logging"; use the URI resource in the rule, with action "accept"
D. "Enforce URI capability"; use the URI resource in the rule,with action "accept"
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway Certkiller from
your SmartCenter Server?
A. print Certkiller
B. fw licprint Certkiller
C. fw tab -t fwlic Certkiller
D. cplic print Certkiller
E. fw lic print Certkiller
Answer: D

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NO.20 Certkiller needs to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration
information from her NGX SecurePlatform Pro Security Gateway. Which
backup-and-restore solution do you recommend for Certkiller?
A. Database Revision Control
B. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
C. upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
D. SecurePlatformbackup utilities
E. Policy Package management
Answer: D

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NO.21 The following is cphaprobstate command output from a New Mode High
Availability cluster member:
Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2,since its number is 2
B. 192.168.1.1,because its number is 1
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority
D. 192.168.1.2, because its state is active
Answer: B

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NO.22 Certkiller .com has two headquarters, one in London, one in new York. Each
headquarters includes several branch offices. The branch offices only need to
communicate with the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and only
the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration for
VPN Communities among the branch offices and their headquarters, and between
the two headquarters? VPN Communities comprised of:
A. Two star and one mesh Community; each star Community is set up for each site, with
headquarters as the center of the Community, and branches as satellites. The mesh
Communities are between the New York and London headquarters
B. Three mesh Communities: one for London headquarters and its branches, one for New
York headquarters and its branches, and one for London and New York headquarters
C. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters and their branch offices; and one
star Community, in which London is the center of the Community and New York is the
satellite
D. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters and their branch offices; and one
star Community, where New York is the center of the Community and London is the
satellite
Answer: A

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NO.23 What do you use to view an NGX Security Gateway's status, including CPU use,
amount of virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A. SmartLSM
B. SmartViewTracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartViewMonitor
E. SmartViewStatus
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration
information?
A. cpcontig
B. cpinfo-i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgrade_import
Answer: E

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NO.25 Which mechanism is used to export Check Point logs to third party applications?
A. OPSE
B. CPLogManager
C. LEA
D. SmartViewTracker
E. ELA
Answer: C

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NO.26 Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
Certificates? SIC Certificates:
A. for the SmartCenter Server are created during the SmartCenter Server configuration
B. decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the
SmartCenter Servers and the Security Gateway
C. for NGX Security Gateways are created during the SmartCenter Server installation
D. uniquely identify Check Point enabled machines; they have the same function as VPN
Certificates
E. are used for securing internal network communications between the SmartView
Tracker and an OPSEC device
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following is the final step in an NGXbackup?
A. Test restoration in a non-production environment, using the upgrade_import command
B. Move the *.tgz file to another location
C. Run the upgrade_export command
D. Copy the conf directory to another location
E. Run the cpstop command
Answer: B

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NO.28 You set up a mesh VPN Community, so your internal network can access your
partners network, and vice versa . Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and
HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All traffic among your internal and partner
networks is sent in clear text. How do you configure VPN Community?
A. Disable 'accept all encrypted traffic', and put FTP and http in the Excluded services in
the Community object Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http, with
the Community object in the VPN field
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and http
services to the Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and http in the Excluded services in
the Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy with services FTP and http, and the
Community object in theVPN field
D. Put FTP and http in the Excluded services in the Community object Then add a rule in
the Security Policy to allow any as the service, with the Community object in the VPN
field
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which of the following commands shows full synchronizalion status?
A. cphaprob -i list
B. cphastop
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob -a if
E. fw hastat
Answer: C

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NO.30 , and the Maximal Delay is set below requirements
D. Burst traffic matching the Default Rule is exhausting the Check Point QoS global
packet buffers
E. The guarantee of one of the rule's sub-rules exceeds the guarantee in the rule itself
Answer: B

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10.Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management on Smart Dash board,
for use with an LDAP server
A. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP Server,
and configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit
B. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the
LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties
C. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global
Properties, and create an LDAP server using an OPSEC application
D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global
Properties, and create an LDAP resource object
E. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource
object
Answer: A

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NO.1 Fill in the blank if no Anti-Virus scanner or Pointsec DataScan is detected on the client
machine,then automatic authorization.
A. will be possible under certain restrictions.
B. will not be possible and access will not be granted.
C. is intiated with administrative approval Build Your Dreams PassGuide 156-708.70
D. will permit the user to authorization the device anyway.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Consider the following image of a log event. Assume this device is frequently used, but you
cannot control its use to the extent it that id required. What is the most reliable solution to this
dilemma?
A. Add this device to Device Manager
B. Create e-mail alerts anytime this device is accessed
C. Create a media audit rule
D. require that the device be password encrypted
Answer: A

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NO.3 There has been a security breach of your companys network and you must block clients
form downloading all files with an .inst extension. What is the correct approach to resolve this
issue?
A. Create the file extension in PSG, save the profile, and update all groups.
B. Load the default profile to groups in the organization until steps are taken to remove the
threat.
C. PSG does not support executing files having other than 3 character extensions and will
therefore block the file.
D. Selects the file extension in PSG, and reloads the profile appropriately.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Under what circumstances this command line procedure would be used? 1. osql.exe �CE 2.
Use disknet 3. update globle configuration set 4. go
A. To connect a local MSDE database installed on a machine using a Microsoft Trusted application
B. To unlock and access the Endpoint Security Media Encryption Server service.
C. To address a blue screen issue when using Endpoint Security media Encryption and McAfee
8.5i on a Windows Vista Enterprise machine
D. To connect to a remote SQL instance using trusted authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Can Endpoint Security Media Encryption import Novell user group?
A. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only work with Active Directory
B. Yes
C. Yes, if the Novell Server is using RADIUS with LDAP
D. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only uses RADIUS
Answer: B

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