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Exam Code: HP2-Z09
Exam Name: HP TippingPoint Advanced Technical Security Products HP2-Z09
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.2 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.4 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B, C

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NO.5 Jack, Kevin, and Louise are responsible for various administrative functions on the TippingPoint
solution. Louise is the manager of the group and is defined on the SMS as a super-user. Jack and Kevin
are both defined as administrators. Jack is responsible for network operations and uptime, and Kevin is
responsible for security policy.
Which permissions should you grant? (Select two.)
A. Jack should only be granted permissions for the IPS devices.
B. Louise should be granted permissions to all segment groups, devices, and profiles.
C. Kevin should be granted permissions for the IPS devices.
D. Kevin should only be granted permissions to the appropriate profiles and segment groups.
Answer: A, D

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NO.6 An IPS can be managed and unmanaged from the SMS. How can you unmanage an IPS? (Select two.)
A. from the SMS Web interface
B. from the SMS client
C. from the IPS LSM Web interface
D. from the IPS CLI using conf t sms disable
Answer: B, C

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NO.7 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.8 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P add r es
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statements about the Digital Vaccine are true.? (Select three.)
A. Installing a new Digital Vaccine will reboot the IPS.
B. Some filters have a Recommended setting of Disabled.
C. Some filters have a Recommended setting of Enabled.
D. Digital Vaccines can be automatically down loaded and installed on the IPS.
E. New Digital Vaccines are released at 2 p.m. EST.
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.10 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that would
best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber and
copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments. The
aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y39
Exam Name: HP Managing & Troubleshooting Enterprise Wireless Networks HP0-Y39
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN
policy?
A. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect the locations of harmful devices, instead of
drawing on the findings of network detectors. This might make the prediction less accurate.
B. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
C. RF Manager might classify your own access points (APs) as Rogue APs because their transmit power
is too high and take action against them.
D. RF Manager might classify legitimate access points (APs) owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs
and take action against them.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Some students are experiencing frequent
interruptions to video playback while others have no issues. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to
optimize performance for all students?
A. Set all radios to maximum power.
B. Set all APs to the same channel.
C. Enable load balancing of clients across APs.
D. Increase the beacon interval.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You set your country of operation and then apply the default Sensor Configuration Template settings to
all sensors in RF Manager. How do your sensors handle channels that cannot be used legally in your
country?
A. The sensors scan these channels and detect threats, but they do not take action against the threats.
B. The sensors scan these channels, detect threats, and take the action you have specified against any
detected threats.
C. The sensors scan these channels and prevent any authorized access points or clients from operating
on these channels.
D. The sensors do not scan these channels for threats.
Answer: A

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NO.4 RF Manager has determined that a Rogue access point (AP) must be quarantined. The only sensor
within range is listed as busy. What happens?
A. RF Manager reclassifies the new Rogue AP as banned so that it cannot connect on the wired side.
B. RF Manager specifies that a quarantine is pending for the new Rogue AP until the sensor is no longer
busy.
C. The sensor stops quarantining one of the currently quarantined devices and starts quarantining the
new Rogue AP.
D. The sensor splits its time between blocking the currently quarantined devices and the new Rogue AP.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. All clients show maximum signal strength, but
some students are experiencing frequent interruptions of video playback. Based on the exhibits, what is a
solution to optimize network throughput for all students.?
A. setting maximum power on radio 1 on all APs
B. setting mandatory data rates for 802.11a to 12
C. changing the channel on radio 2 of AP5 to channel 6
D. lowering the RTS threshold on all radios
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the risk of applying intrusion prevention to an access point (AP) listed as Indeterminate?
A. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP follows your Authorized WLAN policy. You might
quarantine your own AP, which could frustrate users.
B. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because you authorized it manually, but it does not
follow your Authorized WLAN policy.
Quarantining your own AP could frustrate users.
C. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because its signal is so low. Sensors will make
themselves busy in quarantining an AP that is probably too far away to be a risk.
D. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP is connected to your system. You might quarantine
another company's AP, which is illegal.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which action does RF Manager take to quarantine a client?
A. It instructs the client's access point to place the client's traffic in a quarantine VLAN.
B. It instructs a sensor to send a forced disassociation message to the client's access point (AP) so that
the AP forces the client to disconnect.
C. It instructs a sensor to send frames to interfere with the frames sent by the quarantined client.
D. It adds the client's MAC address to the access point's MAC lockout list, thereby blocking the client's
traffic.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Students are experiencing slow
network performance, and some clients are having difficulty connecting to the wireless network. The IT
staff installed wireless access points (APs) over a year ago. Previous classes, consisting of 200 students
had no problems. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize performance for all students?
A. Enable radio 1 on all APs.
B. Add service-template1 to all 2.4Ghz radios.
C. Remove service-template1 from all 5Ghz radios.
D. Set cipher-suite to ccmp for service-template1.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are the requirements for deploying a sensor that is discovered by RF Manager with zero
configuration? (Select two.)
A. The sensor must operate in network detector (ND) mode.
B. The sensor must be installed on the same VLAN as RF Manager.
C. The network must be set up to assign the sensor IP settings through DHCP.
D. The DNS server must map the WiFi-security-server to the RF Manager IP address.
E. RF Manager and the sensor must both be at their default IP settings.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
RF Manager and its sensors have detected an association between an Uncategorized Client and an
access point (AP) that uses these settings:
SSID = Company C
Security = WPA2 with CCMP and 802.1X
The AP is detected while passing the client traffic on VLAN 20 (10.1.20.0/24). WiFi is permitted at this
location. The exhibits show the Authorized SSID Template, other Authorized WLAN Policy settings, and
the Intrusion Prevention Policy for the location.
What does RF Manager have its sensors do?
A. quarantine the AP only
B. quarantine the client only
C. take no action against either device
D. quarantine both the AP and the client
Answer: A

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NO.11 In sensor only (SO) mode, what does an HP sensor monitor?
A. It monitors only one untagged VLAN as well as wireless signals.
B. It monitors wireless signals, but does not monitor VLANs.
C. It monitors multiple VLANs as well as wireless signals.
D. It monitors multiple VLANs, but does not monitor wireless signals.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is experiencing network performance issues with their wireless network. The customer
decides to take corrective actions on their wireless active controller. Based on the exhibit, what will
happen on the wireless network if the customer sent a 1200 byte packet from a wireless client associated
to essid HP_Openaccess? (Select two.)
A. The wireless packet will be fragmented.
B. The wireless packet will trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
C. The wireless packet will not be fragmented.
D. The wireless packet will not trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
E. The access point will send more Beacon frames than if the default configuration had been left
unchanged.
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Students running 802.11n clients are not seeing
optimal bandwidth connection data rates. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize 802.11n
data rates?
A. Disable High Throughput (HT mode) on all radios.
B. Disable RTS/CTS capability on non-802.11n client NICs.
C. Configure Band Steering mode on radio 1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
D. Configure Greenfield mode on radio1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer reports the performance of their HP A-WA2620E access point (AP) is inadequate. While
investigating the report, you determine that the AP is functioning in MIMO 3x2 mode instead of MIMO 3x3
as desired. What is one possible cause of this problem?
A. The AP is powered using 802.3af PoE.
B. The AP is configured to use a 40Mhz channel bandwidth.
C. The AP is not implementing the local switching feature.
D. The AP is powered using 802.3at PoE.
Answer: A

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NO.15 By default, which roles do the RF Manager and its sensors perform in detecting Rogue access points
(APs)?
A. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your network.
B. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find unauthorized APs on your network.
C. Sensors monitor wired and wireless transmissions so RF Manager can find unauthorized APs
connected to your wired network.
D. Sensors detect APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your Authorized AP list.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M38
Exam Name: HP Managing HP Storage Essentials (SRM) 6.x Software HP0-M38
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What do you use to calculate File System Viewer licenses?
A. host MAPS
B. NAS capacity (RAW) in managed TB
C. total array capacity in managed TB
D. scanned space (file sizes) in TB
E. managed host files system (volume) in TB
Answer: D

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NO.2 Using Storage Essentials, you discover a customer's SAN switches, storage arrays, tape and libraries.
What must you do next to implement Backup Manager?
A. Install the corresponding SMI-S provider on the backup server.
B. Discover hosts.
C. Discover applications.
D. Install the corresponding CIM extension on the backup manager hosts.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which parameter should be specified in the cim.extensions.parameters file to enable the CIM extension
to listen on a specific network card?
A. -port
B. -on
C. -mgmtServerIP
D. -nic
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which tool can you use to verify SNIA libraries on a server?
A. HP SMH
B. Server System Requirements wizard
C. CIM Extension Installer
D. hbatest
Answer: D

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NO.5 What must you do if a managed EVA becomes managed by the passive CommandView EVA server?
A. Run a Get Details
B. Run Update Element Data
C. Manage CIM Extensions
D. Enable Troubleshooting Mode
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y31
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions HP0-Y31
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 You have an HP Networking Switch E5400 zl that has two configured VLANs. VLAN 100 has an IP
address range of 10.1.100.0/24 and is where the servers reside. VLAN 36 has an IP address range of
10.1.36.0/24 and is where the network clients reside. You configure an ACL with the following entries:
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq https
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ssh
When you apply this ACL statically to ports in VLAN 36, what is the effect on the clients located in VLAN
36?
A. They have no access because the ACL is misconfigured.
B. They cannot access anything in the 10.1.100.0 subnet because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
C. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but no access elsewhere.
D. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but full access to everything else
in the 10.1.100.0 subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company ¯ s he l p desk r eques t s access t o t he w eb i n t e rf ace o f va ri ous ne t w o r k i ng dev i ces . The
network administrator decides to implement a secure web interface using SSL. Which step is necessary
to complete this task on an HP E5400 zl switch?
A. import the certificate authority certificate
B. configure RADIUS for user login
C. generate a self-signed certificate
D. enable SSH
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is an advantage of locating intelligent routing at the edge of an enterprise network instead of only
in the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and MSTP for default gateway redundancy.
B. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
C. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies route summarization because only routers must support VLANs
only for directly connected users.
D. The edge-oriented strategy allows traffic to traverse the network after the routing decisions have been
made.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which mechanism enables two parties to agree on a symmetric key on their own without transmitting it
over the network?
A. Kerberos
B. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C. Diffie-Hellman exchange
D. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Answer: C

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NO.5 HP E5400 zl switches have the ability to mirror traffic from one switch to another. Which action should
you take when implementing remote mirroring?
A. Configure a connection-rate filter.
B. Enable the instrumentation monitor.
C. Enable jumbo frames.
D. Enable a bandwidth limit.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is one security challenge that is specifically addressed by dynamically refreshing encryption keys?
A. Users forget their passwords and forget how to connect.
B. Hackers are more likely to crack a key when they have many frames encrypted with that key.
C. Asymmetric keys, which are more secure than symmetric keys, must be distributed dynamically.
D. Static encryptions keys can protect data's privacy, but not its integrity.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator has been tasked with implementing a dynamic port ACL on an HP E5400 zl Series
switch. Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A. It can be implemented as either a standard or extended ACL.
B. It filters switched IP traffic either inbound or outbound on a designated port.
C. It requires the use of 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication services on the switch.
D. It is used where clients with differing access needs are likely to use the same port.
E. Configuration of the ACL is done on the switch and then read dynamically by a RADIUS server when a
user connects.
F. It can be applied to either a single physical port or to a link aggregation group.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 You must configure four HP E8212 zl switches and six HP E5406 zl switches to support Multiple
Instance Spanning Tree (MSTP) on a network. What must you do to ensure that all the switches join the
same MST region?
A. Configure the switches with identical Uplink Priorities for common switch-to-switch links.
B. Configure Bridge Priorities on each switch so that all MST instances have a different Root Bridge.
C. Configure the switches with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance mappings.
D. Configure all switch-to-switch links in each MST instance as tagged members of all VLANs.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which authentication protocol provides mutual authentication for both the supplicant and the
authentication server?
A. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
C. Microsoft CHAP version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)-Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which default gateway redundancy protocol is supported on HP E5400 zl switches?
A. XRRP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. FSRP
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which RADIUS packet includes the Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) that are applied to customize a user
connection?
A. Access-Update
B. Access-Request
C. Accounting-Request
D. Access-Accept
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your CIO wants you to investigate IT defense in depth. What does this mean?
A. You need to purchase a deep-packet inspection Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).
B. You need to upgrade your firewalls to next-generation firewalls.
C. You need to plan a comprehensive strategy that addresses security at many layers.
D. You need to leverage the network infrastructure built-in security features rather than look for
appliance-based solutions.
Answer: C

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NO.13 How does the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) improve network availability?
A. by providing redundant links between edge and core layers
B. by providing redundant connections to the Internet
C. by providing backup default gateways for client devices
D. by supporting the configuration of redundant gateways on VRRP-enabled clients
Answer: C

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NO.14 Routed ACLs (RACLs) can be used to filter traffic on an HP E5400 zl switch. Which traffic is
inspected?
A. routed IP traffic arriving on one VLAN and leaving through another VLAN
B. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same VLAN
C. IP traffic entering a physical port, port list, or static trunk
D. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same subnet of a multinetted VLAN
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which statement is true about the HP E5400 zl switch Connection-rate Filtering feature?
A. It detects threats with both a signature-based engine and an anomaly-based engine that can detect
zero day attacks.
B. A connection-rate ACL can be used to allow some or all inbound traffic through a port that has been
throttled or blocked.
C. It uses sFlow traffic sampling to determine whether traffic activity represents an intrusion.
D. The connection-rate filter sensitivity is configurable per port, VLAN, or link aggregation group.
Answer: B

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NO.16 When the following command is issued at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl switch at factory default settings,
which Spanning Tree version is enabled?
E5406(config)# spanning-tree
A. STP+
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: C

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NO.17 When a router must determine which route to include in its route table, when does the router use
administrative distance in the decision.?
A. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from static configurations or
different routing protocols
B. when the router has learned about multiple routes from equal-cost paths to the same destination
C. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
D. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using
the same routing protocol
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator needs to create an ACL to block traffic from 192.168.10.23 to 192.168.10.100, which
are on the same subnet. Which type of ACL can be used to meet this need?
A. a standard ACL applied as Routed ACL (RACL)
B. an extended ACL applied as a Routed ACL (RACL)
C. a standard ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
D. an extended ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
Answer: D

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NO.19 You must configure an HP E5406 zl switch to be the Owner of a VRID associated with VLAN 20. What
must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID?
A. It must use an address on a multi-netted VLAN interface.
B. It must match the router's address on the VLAN 20 interface.
C. It must use a classless address.
D. It must match the address assigned to VLAN 20 on the Backup router.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You must provide the capability for the Virtual IP address to be pinged if the Backup router assumes
the Master role when the Owner router fails. What is necessary to ensure this operation?
A. E8206(config)# router vrrp virtual-ip-ping
B. E8206(config)# vrrp 10 virtual-ip-ping
C. E8206(config)# router virtual-ip
D. E8206(config)# router ospf ip-ping
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-M32
Exam Name: HP Project and Portfolio Management Center 8.x Software HP0-M32
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NO.1 What are the workflow step sources? (Select three.)
A. Conditions
B. Flowcharts
C. Executions
D. Decisions
E. Graphics
F. Boolean
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Your manager asks you about setting up email notifications that can be triggered on a request. How
should you respond?
A. Notifications can be configured for any field on a request.
B. Notifications can be configured only on custom fields.
C. Notifications can be configured only on specific standard fields.
D. Notifications can be configured only on drop-down list boxes.
Answer: C

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NO.3 On the Request for Change request type, the user wants the Approved By field to be required when the
selected value for the Environment equals Production. What should you do to accomplish this?
A. Configure the Request Field Status Dependencies.
B. Create a simple default rule for the request type and set the event to Apply on Creation.
C. Create an advanced request type rule using SQL Default Logic.
D. Create an advanced request type rule using UI Rule Logic.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What must you edit to change the transition name from Complete to Approved?
A. the workflow validation value only
B. the workflow name only
C. the workflow validation value and the transition name
D. the workflow validation value and the workflow name
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which display options are available on a decision workflow step? (Select two.)
A. Always
B. Conditional
C. Never
D. Only When Active
E. Immediate
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which tab do you click on to check if a validation is being used by other entities?
A. Usage
B. Ownership
C. Used By
D. Values
Answer: C

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NO.7 How do you enable tracking of scheduled and actual work appropriated to requests?
A. Manually create data fields on requests.
B. Manually create data fields on requests and link to resources.
C. Enable the Work Item field group.
D. Enable the Demand Management Scheduling Fields field group.
E. Set the corresponding field attributes.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the main function of a workflow parameter?
A. It allows you to capture additional data that a request type is unable to capture to be shown in the
request type as a field.
B. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to direct other stages in the
process.
C. It allows you to capture the value of a field in the request type and use this value to direct other stages
in the process.
D. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to prompt the user for input.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Currently, all users can create an IS Release Calendar Change request. How do you change this so
only a specified group can create this request?
A. Make a copy of the request and update the workflow security.
B. Change the access grants for the specified group only.
C. Set Field Level restrictions to the specified group for any user-based data fields on the request type.
D. Go to User Access on the request type and configure the participant permissions.
E. Modify the ownership information for the request type.
Answer: D

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NO.10 When defining a timeout transition in a step source, which radio button do you click to define the
timeout?
A. Specific Event
B. Specific Result
C. Other errors
D. Specific Error
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-P15
Exam Name: HP Planning & Designing HP Superdome 2 Solutions HP0-P15
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NO.1 What is included in a BladeSystem Matrix product number (SKU)? (Select two.)
A. Converged Infrastructure assessment service
B. installation and setup services
C. HP Flex Financing
D. integrated IT infrastructure platform
E. proof of concept
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 How many Onboard Administrator (OA) modules and Global Partition Services Modules (GPSMs) ship
standard in a single Superdome 2 enclosure?
A. two OA modules and four GPSMs
B. two OA modules and two GPSMs
C. four OA modules and two GPSMs
D. four OA modules and four GPSMs
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Which HP Converged Infrastructure core component does the statement in the exhibit describe?
A. Virtual Resource Pools
B. FlexFabric
C. Infrastructure Operating Environment
D. Data Center Smart Grid
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the characteristics of the HP Infrastructure Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A. enables dynamic tuning of resources
B. virtualizes network systems and protocols
C. regulates power in the data center
D. optimizes the data center cooling environment
E. speeds time to application value
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 What is the correct definition of the HP Converged Infrastructure?
A. It packages IT components into one virtual shared resource that can be shared across the enterprise.
B. It matches the supply of IT resources with the demand for business applications and delivers a
services-oriented infrastructure.
C. It enables purpose-centric solutions, such as those built for scale, holistic energy management,and
adaptive software, that deliver performance, efficiency, and value.
D. It evolves the IT infrastructure from a product-centric approach to a technology-based
approach.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-A23
Exam Name: HP NonStop NS-Series Servers Configuration and Planning HP0-A23
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which tool produces a report recommending disk cache changes based on evaluated
MEASURE
data?
A. NSX
B. SCF
C. GPA
D. XRAY
Answer: C

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NO.2 On a 16-processor NonStop NS-series or NB-series system, what is the maximum number of
processors that can be configured in the LAN adapter's access list?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which utilities show object files that have been PROGID? (Select two.)
A. TPDC
B. DSAP
C. DCOM
D. FUP
E. PEEK
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which subsystem can be used to monitor state changes for a running application on a
NonStop
system?
A. Event Management Service
B. Spooler
C. TMF
D. Kernel Managed Swap Facility
Answer: A

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NO.5 How is an NS-series server different from an S-series server?
A. An NS-series server does not ship with built-in batteries for backup power.
B. An NS-series server has a built-in USB port on the maintenance switch.
C. An NS-series server does not require water cooling.
D. An NS-series server does not require air conditioning.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which utility is used to set the number of ServerNet connections per fabric between a CLIM
and
each ServerNet switch?
A. SCF
B. OSM Low-Level Link (LLL)
C. OSM service connection (SC)
D. CLIMCOM
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which subsystems or utilities should you use to set up a Daylight Savings Time (DST) transition
table? (Select two.)
A. TIME
B. TACL
C. SCF
D. DSTCOM
E. ADDDST
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which equipment does an NS-series system need to detect a power failure RIDE_THRU when
all
AC grid power sources have failed?
A. a site-wide UPS supporting SNMP
B. an R5500 rack-mounted UPS
C. a site-wide UPS supporting SMTP
D. a PDU monitored by OSM
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of Fiber Channel Disk Modules (FCDMs) that can be daisy
chained
together?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which cable type is valid for Ethernet connections for a maintenance LAN?
A. SCSI cable
B. MMF type fiber optic cable
C. Category 5 unshielded twisted pair
D. coaxial cable
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B67
Exam Name: HP HP Imaging and Printing Assessment and Design HP2-B67
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which elements are correctly paired with their respective steps in the flow as provided in the
Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview? (Select two.)
A. Assess - TCO Analysis
B. Analyze - Company Tour
C. Analyze - TCO Analysis
D. Qualify - Business Case
E. Qualify - Company Tour
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 What are the four steps in the Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview?
A. Search, Assess, Sell, Service
B. Qualify, Assess, Analyze, Design
C. Interview, Discover, Define, Design
D. Qualify, Assess, Discover, Design
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Elements of a Corporate Strategy ? (Select two.)
A. The objective
is the aspiration of an organization.
B. The mission
is the quantification or specification of a goal.
C. The goal
is the general statement of aim or purpose.
D. The strategy
is a long-term direction or measure.
E. The vision
is the overriding purpose
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are on a company tour at customer's site and you notice that stacks of consumables are placed
next to printing devices or in separate rooms. What are possible pain points/risks of this practice? (Select
two.)
A. risk of expiring/non-compatible consumables
B. high storage costs
C. lack of remote device management
D. insufficient service level agreements
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 Which elements are correctly paired with their respective steps in the flow as provided in the
Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview.? (Select two.)
A. Assess - Company Tour
B. Assess - Discovery & Design
C. Analyze - Managed Environment Assessment
D. Design - Business Case
E. Analyze - Business Case
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: HP2-B75
Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Security-Technical HP2-B75
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.2 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and
imaging devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use?
(Select three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.5 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical
theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-H13
Exam Name: HP Selling HP Retail Point of Sale Solutions HP2-H13
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which touchscreen monitor size is offered as an option for HP Point of Sale systems?
A. 11 inch diagonal
B. 13 inch diagonal
C. 15 inch diagonal
D. 17 inch diagonal
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many keys is your customer able to configure on an HP POS keyboard?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 28
D. 56
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HP Point of Sale system simplifies peripheral selection?
A. ap5700
B. rp5700
C. ap5000
D. rp5000
Answer: A

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NO.4 On which message should you focus when your customer asks you why they should buy HP-branded
peripherals?
A. simpler installation with HP Point of Sale products
B. standard HP warranty that can reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
C. longer lifecycle due to improved reliability
D. easy ordering process and available financing
Answer: B

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NO.5 Retailers must address several critical factors in order to build sustainable businesses. Which of these
factors can HP help with?
A. floor space
B. price
C. merchandising
D. brand equity
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your customer is buying a modular HP Point of Sale system. They want a display that provides
information to their customers. Which HP peripheral meets this customer's needs?
A. two-line pole display
B. two-sided display panel
C. 10.4 " customer-facing monitor
D. integrated customer display
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are competing with IBM for the business of a large customer that requires a POS solution installed
in their Warehouse Sales Store facilities. One of the customer's decision criteria is the cost of supporting
and maintaining the solution after the sale. Which HP Point of Sale benefit should you emphasize with this
customer that gives you an advantage in this competitive situation?
A. integration with existing powered peripherals
B. support of next generation powered peripherals
C. strong global service and support organization
D. HP three-year warranty on the POS and peripherals
Answer: D

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NO.8 How is the on/off switch on the rp5700 Point of Sale system configured to help avoid accidental
shutdowns?
A. located in back with delay
B. located in front and covered
C. located in front and recessed
D. located on side with delay
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer is considering using a PC configured as a Point of Sale solution. What is a unique HP Point
of Sale feature that would help this customer consider an HP POS solution?
A. systems engineered to support long lifecycles
B. lower purchase price for HP POS solution
C. easy integration with the customer's back office system
D. the 3-year standard warranty offered on HP POS
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are working with a customer who is environmentally conscious and is specifically interested in
energy consumption. Which benefit should you focus on to help justify a decision for the HP ap5000.?
A. designed and tested for a retail environment
B. Energy Star 5.0 and EPEAT Silver qualified
C. reduced heat with 64GB Solid State Drive
D. choice of energy-efficient peripherals
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which feature of HP Thermal Receipt Printers extends the service life?
A. advanced exchange warranty
B. built-in liquid dam with drainage
C. ceramic auto-cutter and printhead
D. powered USB cable operation
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer is planning to install their point of sale system under the counter. You suggest they use the
HP rp5700 because it supports operation temperatures higher than most PCs can maintain. How is the
HP rp5700 vented to support this capability?
A. front and back
B. top and bottom
C. right and left sides
D. all six surfaces
Answer: A

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NO.13 What makes the ports on an HP Point of Sale system different from those on a PC?
A. aligned in order of importance
B. large, easy-to-read labels
C. labeled port covers
D. powered USB ports
Answer: C

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NO.14 Your customer is refreshing their Point of Sale systems and wants to integrate them into their existing
environment. Which feature makes it possible to meet this customer's need?
A. extensive connectivity
B. retail hardened design
C. energy efficient design
D. industry standard technology
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is a brief, but accurate description of the HP ap5000 that you can provide a customer?
A. a compact and affordable Point of Sale solution
B. a touch enabled All-in-One Point of Sale solution
C. a powerful modular Point of Sale solution
D. a Retail Hardened Point of Sale solution
Answer: C

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