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Exam Code: 000-M39
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ Technical Sales Mastery Test v2 )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the name of the MQMD field that a message producer uses to ensure that no consumers
receive a message after a message has been on a destination queue for a specified period of time?
A. Timeout
B. Expiry
C. TimeToLive
D. MaxAge
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a channel connection enhancement new in WebSphere MQ v7?
A. MQI channel connections can be shared
B. SSL encryption for each MQI Channel connection
C. Read-ahead for non-persistent messages
D. Automatic client reconnection
Answer: B

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NO.3 In order to write messages to a queue what operation must be done first?
A. Connect to the queue
B. Verify queue is empty
C. Set the queue to read/write mode
D. Open the queue
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which topic string is NOT valid for a subscribing application to get all messages about fresh fruit if a
topic tree exists with the following topic hierarchy: deli/fresh; deli/fresh/fruit; deli/tinned/nuts;
deli/tinned/meat?
A. deli
B. deli/+/fruit
C. deli/fresh/fruit
D. deli/#
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is required for WebSphere MQ v7 to support publish-subscribe messaging?
A. A queue manager
B. A publish-subscribe broker that has the same name as the queue manager
C. A separate broker process that is associated with each queue manager
D. ASupportPac is available to provide publish-subscribe functionality
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M48
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Web Content Management Technical Sales Mastery Test v2 )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is used to define the form that allows users to create content?
A. Site Area
B. Content Component
C. Authoring Template
D. Presentation Template
Answer: C

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NO.2 The separation of how content is created from how content is displayed is facilitated by:
A. Sites and Site Areas
B. Authoring Templates and Presentation Templates
C. Site Areas and Authoring Templates
D. Sites and Presentation Templates
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following items does the user NOT need access to in order to view content items?
A. Site Area
B. Library
C. Authoring Template
D. Presentation Template
Answer: C

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NO.4 The mapping between authoring templates and presentation templates is defined where in WCM?
A. Taxonomy
B. Component
C. Workflow Stage
D. Site Area
Answer: D

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Which of the following caching options should be used to improve performance but still allow for the
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A. Dynacache
B. Advanced Caching
C. Prerendering
D. Basic Caching
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-035
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Asset Mat for IT v7.2.1 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A customer has requested that a single concurrent Web session policy is implemented using a high
availability solution. Along with the installation of IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1
WebSEAL, which selection of hardware, IBM software, and configuration meets this requirement?
A. An IBM WebSphere V6.1.1 Network Deployment Server using a 32-bit JVM and an IBM Tivoli Access
Manager V6.1.1 Session Management Service deployed in a WebSphere cluster composed by four
cluster members hosted on four Solaris SPARC 64-bit machines.
B. An IBM WebSphere V6.1.1 Network Deployment Server using a 32-bit JVM, IBM WebSphere
ObjectGrid V6.1.0, and IBM Tivoli Access Manager V6.1.1 Session Management Service deployed in a
WebSphere cluster configuration hosted on four Solaris SPARC 64-bit machines.
C. An IBM WebSphere V7.0 Network Deployment Server using a 64-bit JVM, IBM WebSphere ObjectGrid
V6.1.0, IBM Tivoli Access Manager V6.1.1 Session Management Service, and IBM Tivoli Access
Manager V6.1.1 Attribute Retrieval Service both deployed in the same WebSphere cluster composed by
eight cluster members hosted in pairs on four Solaris SPARC 64-bit machines.
D. An IBM WebSphere V7.0 Network Deployment Server using a 32-bit JVM, IBM WebSphere eXtreme
Scale V7.0, IBM Tivoli Access Manager V6.1.1 Session Management Service, and IBM Tivoli Access
Manager V6.1.1 Attribute Retrieval Service deployed in two different WebSphere clusters each one
composed by four cluster members hosted on four Solaris SPARC 64-bit machines.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a supported Single Sign-On method used with WebSEAL and WebSphere Application Server?
A. SSL
B. DNS
C. TAI++
D. LTPA++
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding minimum patch level requirements for the IBM Tivoli Access
Manager Application Development Kit (ADK) on Windows XP?
A. Service packs are not required.
B. ADK does not run on Windows XP.
C. Windows XP Professional Version Service Pack 2 is required.
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager will suggest the required fix pack level once it is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can employees and customers be given different password policies within a single IBM Tivoli
Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1 (Tivoli Access Manager) environment?
A. Configure the password policy in LDAP.
B. Apply the employee or customer password policy template when creating a user.
C. Create two Tivoli Access Manager groups, one for employees and one for customers, each with their
own password policy.
D. Create two Tivoli Access Manager domains, one for employees and one for customers, each with their
own password policy.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the correct sequence for installing and configuring a base IBM Tivoli Access Manager for
e-business V6.1.1 environment?
A. WebSEAL, Policy Server, IBM DB2, IBM LDAP
B. IBM DB2, IBM LDAP, Policy Server, WebSEAL
C. IBM LDAP, IBM DB2, WebSEAL, Policy Server
D. Policy Server, IBM DB2, IBM LDAP, WebSEAL
Answer: B

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NO.6 In order to achieve communication between the default configured Policy Server and WebSEAL, which
firewall ports must be opened between these two components?
A. ports 80 and 443
B. ports 389 and 636
C. ports 6881 and 6999
D. ports 7135 and 7234
Answer: D

IBM   000-035   000-035   000-035

NO.7 A company has headquarters in New York and two branch offices, one in Dallas and one in San
Francisco. The branch offices have several working WebSEAL instances configured to protect their web
resources. The Policy Server is installed and configured in New York and the branch offices are
connected with the headquarters by a slow dial-up connection. The administrators of the branch offices
complain that it takes lot of time before WebSEAL receives an up to date authorization database after a
restart. Which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1 component must be installed to solve this
issue?
A. Policy Proxy Server
B. Authorization Server
C. Standby Policy Server
D. Session Management Server (SMS)
Answer: A

IBM   000-035   000-035

NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
An existing IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1 infrastructure already protects a Web
application for employees; they have to use the Intranet WebSEAL in order to access this Web application
(dashed line in the exhibit). The next step is to create a high-level design so this Web application is also
accessible for Internet customers. What would be the most secure and logical flow?
A. Flow A
B. Flow B
C. Flow C
D. Flow D
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which user registry is supported with IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business V6.1.1?
A. OpenLDAP
B. Oracle iDirectory
C. Sun Internet Directory
D. Microsoft Active Directory Application Mode (ADAM)
Answer: D

IBM   000-035   000-035 test questions

NO.10 People who break into a system typically do not know what permissions they have so they attempt to do
everything. Which report would be used to identify this activity?
A. General Audit Event History
B. Failed Authorization Event History
C. General Audit Event Details Report
D. Failed Authentication Event History
Answer: B

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NO.11 When using IBM Tivoli Directory Server as a user registry in an IBM Tivoli Access Manager for
e-business V6.1.1 environment, which Directory Information Tree (DIT) structure reduces the number of
objects created in the database?
A. Running the am2fmt utility after installation.
B. Specifying the user of Minimal Mode at installation.
C. Specifying the use of Standard Mode at installation.
D. Specifying the -minimal parameter on the pdadmin user create command.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which statement is true regarding operating system patches and IBM Tivoli Access Manager V6.1.1
Runtime running on Windows XP?
A. No patch is required.
B. IBM Tivoli Access Manager Runtime does not run on Windows XP.
C. The minimum patch level needed is Professional Version Service Pack 1.
D. The minimum patch level needed is Professional Version Service Pack 2.
Answer: D

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NO.13 The high level solution document indicates that the WebSEAL deployment must be highly available and
that user sessions will be maintained across multiple WebSEAL servers to enhance the user experience
when a WebSEAL becomes unavailable. What is included in the high level configuration document to
satisfy these requirements?
A. the use of load balancers
B. the use of LDAP replication
C. the use of a WebSEAL cluster
D. the use of a Policy Server cluster
Answer: C

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NO.14 When preparing a high level configuration document for an IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
V6.1.1 deployment, what is an indicator that a Session Management Server may be included?
A. There is a firewall between the WebSEAL and the Policy Server.
B. A load balancer will be used in front of multiple replicated WebSEALs.
C. There is a firewall between the WebSEAL and the back-end application servers.
D. A load balancer will be used between the WebSEAL and multiple back-end application servers.
Answer: B

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NO.15 When unauthorized users break into a system, they tend to do as much as possible as quickly as
possible before they are discovered. Which report identifies this behavior pattern?
A. Most Active Accessors
B. Resource Access by Accessor
C. Resource Access by Resource
D. Authorization Event History by Action
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-533
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Application Developer - Informix 11.50)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which two virtual platforms are supported for running IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1?
(Choose two.)
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. VMware ESX Server V4.x
C. VMware ESX Server V3.x
D. VMware Workstation V7.1
E. Microsoft Virtual Server 2003
Answer: BC

IBM questions   000-533   000-533

NO.2 Which three components are installed individually by the Deployment Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Event Archiver
B. Agent Manager
C. Database Server
D. Application Server
E. X-Press Update Server
F. SecurityFusion Module
Answer: ABE

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NO.3 A customer has deployed an Express installation. What is the default action when the database
reaches 85% of capacity?
A. The database will continue processing normally without purging.
B. The database will begin purging up to 5% of the oldest data from the database.
C. The database will begin purging up to 10% of the oldest data from the database.
D. The database will begin purging up to 15% of the oldest data from the database.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which optional component writes incoming event data to disk based on user-created event filters?
A. Incident Safe
B. Event Logger
C. Event Archiver
D. Agent Archiver
Answer: C

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NO.5 According to the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 scalability guidelines, what is the
maximum event rate and maximum heartbeat rate per day for a small deployment?
A. 25,000 events / 500 heartbeats
B. 50,000 events / 1,000 heartbeats
C. 100,000 events / 5,000 heartbeats
D. 125,000 events / 7,000 heartbeats
Answer: B

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NO.6 How is an Event Collector upgraded in the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Console?
A. right-click on Event Collector > Update > Apply XPU
B. right-click on Event Collector > UpdateServer > Update EventCollector
C. using the Manual Upgrader tool, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply Update
D. using the X-Press Update Server, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply Update
Answer: A

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NO.7 According to the scalability guidelines for a large site, a customer should have at least what speed hard
disks available to the database server?
A. 5400 RPM
B. 7200 RPM
C. 10000 RPM
D. 15000 RPM
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three operating systems meet the requirements for installing the IBM Security SiteProtector
Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Database in the Recommended option? (Choose three.)
A. Windows XP Professional SP2
B. Windows Server 2008 Standard
C. Windows 2000 Advanced Server
D. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise
E. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
F. Windows Server 2003 SP2 Standard Edition
Answer: BDF

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NO.9 Which components are installed during step two of a Recommended installation using the Deployment
Manager in IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1?
A. Site Database, Console
B. Site Database, Event Collector
C. Application Server, Event Collector
D. Application Server, Agent Manager
Answer: D

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NO.10 What function does the Deployment Manager provide in IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0
SP8.1 (SiteProtector)?
A. It provides a Web-based interface for users to install SiteProtector components.
B. It automatically distributes X-Press Update Server updates to SiteProtector components.
C. It generates Proventia Desktop Agent builds and distributes them to computers on a network.
D. It provides a Web-based interface for users to install service packs to SiteProtector components.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which product combination would merit the consideration of IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0
SP8.1 SecurityFusion?
A. IBM Network Intrusion and IBM Security Server Protection
B. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention Systems and IBM Security Desktop
C. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention and IBM Security Network Enterprise Scanner
D. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention and IBM Security Virtual Server Protection for VMware
Answer: C

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NO.12 The customer is planning to deploy 50,000 desktops. At a minimum, how many standalone Event
Collector / Agent Manager pairs should be configured to communicate with the database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.13 What must be entered during the Agent Manager installation?
A. SQL Server Address, Agent Manager Address
B. Application Server Address, SQL Server Address
C. SQL Authentication Method, Agent Manager Address
D. Application Server Address, SQL Authentication Method
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two items are important considerations for performance? (Choose two.)
A. agent events per day
B. agent purges per day
C. agent updates per day
D. agent heartbeats per day
E. agent installations per day
Answer: AD

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NO.15 What can be used to create a valid group membership rule?
A. AssetID
B. ProductID
C. IP Address
D. MAC Address
Answer: D

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NO.16 A corporation is deploying IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 and plans to use Enterprise
Scanner to scan their various business departments each with their own assessment policy. Additionally,
network subnets may require a different policy within each department. Which top to bottom group
structure hierarchy best satisfies their needs?
A. ACME > Department > Subnet
B. Subnet > Department > ACME
C. Subnet > ACME > Department
D. ACME > Subnet > Department
Answer: A

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NO.17 How many computer(s) does the Recommended option install on in the Deployment Manager?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.18 How much system hard drive space is required for the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1
Database in the Recommended option?
A. 9 GB
B. 18 GB
C. 27 GB
D. 36 GB
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which pre-defined security user group permits an employee to work with events and all reports except
for Permissions and Audit Detail?
A. Analyst
B. Operator
C. Administrator
D. Event Manager
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are two requirements before upgrading the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1
Core component? (Choose two.)
A. close all local consoles
B. put the SQL Server in single user mode
C. reboot the server after applying the update
D. disable all Event Collectors/Agent Managers
E. ensure administrative rights in order to log on to the Application Server computer
Answer: AE

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Exam Code: 000-608
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0 Deployment )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A deployment professional is installing a new business process application. The deployment
professional is using a script installation with the installInteractive option so that they are prompted for
values during the installation process. What is the reason for this installation approach?
A. The interactive configuration script provides an audit log of the installation for revision control
purposes.
B. Installation with the interactive configuration script is faster than using the Integrated Solutions Console
(ISC).
C. Some configuration values must be specified which are not available using the Integrated Solutions
Console (ISC) wizard interface.
D. When configuring with an interactive script, it is not necessary to specify information about the
application required data sources.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A deployment professional is installing an application which uses business processes in a clustered
WebSphere Process Server environment. The Business Process Choreographer (BPC) container has
previously been configured. During which phase of the installation is the application validated?
A. During the installation phase on the node agent.
B. During the installation phase on the deployment manager.
C. During the configuration phase on the application server.
D. During the application start phase on the application server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A retail company has the requirement to make frequent changes to a long running
MyProcessDiscount business process as newer versions of that process are introduced due to changing
business needs. What approach should a deployment professional adopt to meet this requirement?
A. Stop the older version of the MyProcessDiscount process template from the Integrated
Solutions Console (ISC), install the application containing the newer version of the business process
template.
B. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, select all the running instances with name
MyProcessDiscount business process, then choose the Migrate option to migrate all instances to the
currently valid version of the business
process template.
C. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, if you see any running instances of older version
of MyProcessDiscount process template,
wait till all the instances of that version of the template are completed, then remove the older version of
the business process template and install the newer version of the business process template.
D. Install the application containing the newer version of MyProcessDiscount process template, then
using the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, monitor the state of the running process instances
and, when execution is in the appropriate place in the flow of the business process, select the business
process instances based on the older template only to migrate to the newer version.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A deployment professional is asked to investigate a failure in a business process. However, the specific
process instance being investigated is still running. After close examination, one of the activities of the
process instance is stopped. What action should the deployment professional take to resolve this issue so
that the current process navigation can continue?
A. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to no but make sure this setting is
overridden at the activity scope to a value of yes.
B. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to yes and ensure this setting is inherited at
the activity scope.
C. Examine the variables of the stopped activity and update the values as necessary, and save the
settings.
D. Set the expiration for the stopped activity so that after a specified interval the activity terminates and
the process can continue.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A deployment professional is performing a review of the audit and logging practices being used. One of
the items under review is the current level of logging configured for the Human Task Manager. The site
database administrator requires that any changes made which affect the amount and type of data being
stored to the database must be reviewed and approved prior to implementation. Which of the following log
settings would impact the data stored to the database?
A. Audit logging
B. Failed event logging
C. Task history logging
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) logging
Answer: A

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NO.6 In a company all the applications deployed in a WebSphere Process Server network deployment
environment extensively leverage asynchronous messaging with JMS bindings. There is a requirement to
resubmit the messages in case of infrastructure failures or planned shutdown.
What is the suggested message reliability level that could be proposed in this situation.?
A. Assured persistent
B. Reliable persistent
C. Reliable non-persistent
D. Best effort non-persistent
Answer: A

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NO.7 A clustered WebSphere Process Server (WPS) production environment consists of a remote messaging
cluster with multiple active messaging engines (ME) configured for high throughput. During the testing of
an application which uses MQ JMS export for in-take of messages, the integration developer has found
out that the messages were arriving on the backend EIS application at random order which was not
desirable. This was not the observed behavior when the application was tested in the Universal Test
Environment (UTE) within WebSphere Integration Developer (WID).
Source Application --------> MQ JMS Export ----------> EIS Application
What is the combination of actions to reconfigure the resources in the production environment in order to
achieve the expected behavior?
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 3
Answer: A

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NO.8 WebSphere Process Server (WPS) V7.0 introduces a new Service Component Architecture (SCA)
container. Which of the following changes in the architecture result in improved performance?
A. There is no dependency for an EJB container for WPS V7.0 applications.
B. The new Business Object Runtime Framework replaces the old Business Object framework.
C. Code generation, validation, and packaging is fully covered during the application deployment.
D. Applications for WPS V6.2 and previous releases are automatically migrated to V7.0 during
deployment.
Answer: A

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NO.9 An application which uses Business Processes extensively has found that there is an excessive number
of messages being sent to the hold queue. The deployment professional is asked to modify the
configuration of the Business Process Choreographer (BPC) settings for that server in an effort to reduce
the amount of messages in the hold queue. Which value should be changed to improve this situation?
A. Retry limit
B. Process limit
C. Hold queue timeout
D. Retention queue message limit
Answer: A

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NO.10 A company has deployed many applications accessing the same backend services. Many of the
applications share the same WSDL and Business Objects. New applications to be deployed in the near
future will use updated backend service definitions. In addition, the memory usage has dramatically
increased over the last deployments and may prevent new application deployments on the same
environment. Which of the following recommendations would a deployment professional MOST likely
provide?
A. The development team must review the applications and provide a single module for the backend
access. Shared WSDL and Business Objects
can be deployed with the new application.
B. The development team should identify common artifacts used by the application. A shared library can
be deployed independently and
referenced by the applications.
C. The environment must be prepared for new applications by increasing the heap size of the servers or
new servers must be added to the
environment to share the workload.
D. The system administrator can deploy new applications including all libraries needed. During the
deployment the libraries of other applications with the needed WSDL and Business Objects can be
referenced as a shared library.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M49
Exam Name: IBM (IBM RationalFocal Point Techinical Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which file type is used when adding multiple elements?
A. Excel (.xls)
B. Word (.doc)
C. rich text (.rtf)
D. text (.txt)
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which feature of Rational Focal Point (RFP) is used to chart the results of Pairwise Comparisons?
A. Prioritize
B. Visualize
C. Relational Graph
D. Display
Answer: B

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NO.3 Three of the following services are provided by Rational Focal Point (RFP). Which service is NOT
provided by Rational Focal Point (RFP)?
A. value-based selection
B. logical code analysis
C. market planning
D. planning release content
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the term for any user with access to a workspace.?
A. client
B. member
C. administrator
D. subscriber
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is NOT one of the three types of data that Rational Focal Point (RFP) is specifically designed to
manage?
A. product
B. portfolio
C. performance
D. requirements
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M93
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Product Fundamentals Tech Mas)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is a primary competitive advantage of Rulerunner Service?
A. Actions only return TRUE or FALSE.
B. It is decoupled from Taskmaster so it can be used with other applications.
C. It is the only capture product with claims of being rule driven.
D. It is open source.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is TRUE.?
A. Taskmaster Server pushes work to machines dedicated to a specific task.
B. Taskmaster clients ask Taskmaster server if there is any work to be done.
C. Only one Taskmaster client may perform a given Task.
D. Batch routing depends on the Taskmaster server configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The two main databases serviced by Taskmaster Server are called:
A. Alpha and Beta.
B. Test and Production.
C. Maintenance and Security.
D. Admin and Engine.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M73
Exam Name: IBM (IBM OmniFind Technical Sales Mastery Test V1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In order to integrate OmniFind Enterprise Edition with WebSphere Portal, you first must install OmniFind
EE on which server?
A. Same server as Portal
B. Separate server from Portal
C. Either on the same server or on a separate server from Portal
D. On the same server as your corporate directory server
Answer: B

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NO.2 A text analysis module that focuses on a single task is called which of the following.?
A. A collection processing agent
B. A search engine
C. An annotator
D. A taxonomy engine
Answer: C

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NO.3 The IBM Classification Module can integrate with which IBM products?
A. OmniFind Enterprise Edition
B. OmniFind Discovery Edition
C. IBM FileNet P8
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is an example of an Insight Solution that uses an out-of-the-box regular
expression annotator and does not require programming?
A. Online Media Analysis
B. Semantic-enabled Enterprise Search
C. Quality Insight
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which feature of Insight Solutions with OmniFind Enterprise Edition enables a company to achieve
greater insight into customer behavior and business performance?
A. Text analysis using plug in annotators and native support for UIMA
B. Pre-built solution accelerators
C. Featured links and "Do you mean" synonym definition
D. Native document-level security and static tokens
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-273
Exam Name: IBM (IBM mid-range-storage technical solutions version 3)
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Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which context should an integration developer assign to the Service Message Object (SMO)
for a mediation flow with aggregation primitives (fan-out and fan-in) to temporarily store responses
from service invocations?
A. Shared
B. FailInfo
C. Transient
D. Correlation
Answer: A

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NO.2 An integration developer needs to implement a human task in an integration solution. If
reusability is a priority, then the integration developer should develop:
A. a collaboration task, since it can be a parent task.
B. an administration task, since it is a reusable activity.
C. a to-do task, since it has access to the process context.
D. an invocation task, since it can be attached to a process.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An integration developer wants to use the Installation Manager to apply product updates.
Which of the following is the correct behavior of the Installation Manger regarding plug-ins?
A. As product updates are applied older version of plug-ins must be manually uninstalled.
B. As product updates are applied older versions of plug-ins are automatically uninstalled.
C. Older versions of plug-ins remain as product updates are applied.
D. Older versions of plug-ins need to be removed using the installation manager prior to newer
product updates being applied.
Answer: B

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NO.4 An integration developer is modeling a human interaction and is trying to decide what type of
human task to use. What advice should be given to the integration developer when considering
using an in-line human task? The integration developer should select the in-line human task if the
task:
A. needs to call other services.
B. provides just another service.
C. needs access to process related information.
D. will eventually be called as an SCA module in the future.
Answer: C

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NO.5 During acceptance testing of an integration solution, various errors in the mediation flows
were discovered. While correcting these errors, the development team found that little or no error
handling was present within the mediation flows. Therefore, a new requirement is introduced to
handle every exception within any mediation flow in exactly the same way by logging the exception
to a file. How can an integration developer implement this requirement?
A. Connect a trace primitive to each fail terminal.
B. Create a mediation flow containing the exception handling logic, and invoke it whenever an error
occurs.
C. Create a mediation subflow containing the exception handling logic, and connect every fail
terminal to this new subflow.
D. Create a mediation subflow containing the exception handling logic, and connect the error input
node of each mediation flow to this new subflow.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An integration developer is planning to create a BPEL process to help with the management of
customer requests. The developer is intending to use a short-running process for the
implementation because it has been determined that the performance of the process is a high
priority, but the process must also be able to compensate for changes to the customer's request.
What approach should the integration developer take while implementing this process?
A. Implement the short-running process as planned, but call the appropriate compensation activity
from a fault handler in the process.
B. Implement the short-running process as planned, but associate an undo-operation with the
appropriate invoke activity in the process.
C. Since compensation is not supported in short-running processes, implement a long-running
process using compensation pairs.
D. Since compensation is not supported in short-running processes, use a compensation handler
and a compensation pair together in the log-running process
Answer: B

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NO.7 A microflow calls a long-running process using a two-way request/response synchronous
operation. What can be a consequence of using this pattern?
A. It will be easier to implement Exception Handling in the microflow.
B. When the long-running process completes, the microflow transaction will be committed.
C. The transaction and threads used by the microflow will be tied up until the long-running process
finishes.
D. Compensation logic will need to be implemented in the long-running process to ensure the
delivery of the reply to the microflow.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A client requires that a new BPEL process return a fault message to the requester in case the
process does not complete correctly. The integration developer has added a fault handler to the
process to catch all exceptions. How should the integration developer return the fault message?
A. Use a throw activity of a business fault.
B. Use a reply activity using a standard fault.
C. Use a reply activity using a business fault defined in the interface.
D. Use a rethrow activity in the fault handler on the process scope using a fault defined in the
interface.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-558
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Database Assoc - Informix Fundamentals 11.70)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You want to use sqlhosts file /newlocation/newsqlhosts. Which of the following is true?
A. sqlhosts file must be called sqlhosts
B. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/sqlhosts
C. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/newsqlhosts
D. sqlhosts file must be defined under $INFORMIXDIR/etc/ directory
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two operations are performed with the onspaces command? (Choose two.)
A. Add space to the server.
B. Compress server space.
C. Encrypt the server space.
D. Remove space from the server.
E. Restrict access to the server space.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which utility can be used to relocate the physical log to a new dbspace?
A. onlog
B. ontape
C. onspaces
D. onparams
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two of the following are required for creating a dbspace? (Choose two.)
A. a mirror chunk
B. two or more chunks
C. a cooked file or raw device
D. a file owned by root or administrator
E. dbspace name containing only letters, digits, underscores, or $ characters.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 Which Informix data movement utilities listed below can be used to move database from a computer
running Windows operating system to an Apple computer?
A. ontape
B. onunload and onload
C. ifxsend and ifxreceive
D. dbexport and dbimport
Answer: D

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NO.6 How can you determine which databases are created in an instance?
A. use dbschema utility
B. inspect ONCONFIG file
C. List reserved pages with oncheck -pr
D. run SELECT name FROM sysmaster:sysdatabases
Answer: D

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NO.7 A progammer wants to unload a table to a file inside a stored procedure. What functionality listed
below will help the programmer accomplish the task?
A. dbload
B. dbexport
C. external table
D. SQL unload statement
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are two ways to create table t1 with row level locking? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) locking row".
B. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) lock level row".
C. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) lock mode row".
D. Set DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW in ONCONFIG before executing "create table t1(c1 int)".
E. Set the environment variable DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW before executing "create table t1(c1
int)".
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Under which of the following conditions does the LAST COMMITTED option have an effect on the
COMMITTED READ isolation level?
A. Row level lock
B. Page level locking
C. RAW or unlogged tables
D. Tables containing complex data types
Answer: A

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NO.10 Given INFORMIXCONTIME = 60 and INFORMIXCONRETRY = 3, if the initial connection attempt fails,
what subsequent attempts will be made to connect?
A. 60 and 120 seconds before aborting
B. Every 3 minutes within one hour before aborting
C. Every 3 seconds within one hour before aborting
D. Wait indefinitely until it is successfully completed
Answer: A

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NO.11 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to reduce disk I/O
B. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
C. to increase concurrency among multiple users on the same table
D. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
Answer: C

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NO.12 You have a database server environment where all databases use buffered logging. In which two
conditions are the logical-log buffers in shared memory flushed to the logical log on disk? (Choose two.)
A. When the buffer is full.
B. When a checkpoint occurs.
C. When a user issues a begin work.
D. When a user commits the transaction.
E. When a user rolls back the transaction.
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator created a table using the SQL statement shown in the exhibit to perform a load operation
every day at 11:00 AM. What is the best way to optimize a backup strategy to recover the client table in
case of a failure?
A. a level-1 backup at 6:00 AM everyday
B. a level-0 backup soon after the load operation
C. a level-1 backup on Sunday and continuous log backup
D. a level-2 backup at 6:00 AM every day and continuous log backup
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which command option should be used to resume an interrupted onbar restore?
A. -RETRY
B. -RESTART
C. -REINTIIALZE
D. -BEGIN_AGAIN
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is true about system catalog tables access?
A. Only user informix can read system catalog tables
B. Only system administrators can read system catalog tables
C. Only database administrators can read system catalog tables
D. Any user that can connect to the database can read system catalog tables
Answer: D

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col2 of the rows having col1=20.
B. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which isolation level is appropriate if you do not want your query to place any locks?
A. Dirty Read
B. Cursor Stability
C. Committed Read
D. Repeatable Read
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which command would you execute to restore to a specific moment-in-time.?
A. onbar -t timestamp
B. onbar -r -log lognum
C. onbar -r -t timestamp
D. onbar -r -l timestamp
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are two system level databases? (Choose two.)
A. sysperf
B. sysadmin
C. sysmaster
D. sysmonitor
E. sysscheduler
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 When restoring data, which granularity of object may NOT be restored?
A. a single table
B. a single chunk
C. a single dbspace
D. an entire instance
Answer: B

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