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Exam Code: E20-018
Exam Name: EMC (Virtualized Data Center and Cloud Infrastructure Design Specialist)
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Total Q&A: 290 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer has implemented a Vblock solution in their primary data centre. They are using a single
management tool set to configure and provisions the computer, network, and storage resources within the
Vblock.
Which management tool are they using?
A. EMC ControlCenter
B. EMC Unisphere
C. EMC United Infrastructure Manager
D. VMware vCenter
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two capacity management objectives often conflict with each other?
A. Manageability and redundancy
B. Availability and security
C. Compliance and efficiency
D. Efficiency and availability
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are three attributes of a cloud services design?
A. Web-based APIs, shared resources, minimal capital expenditures
B. Static service, fixed priced access, improved economics
C. Accessed via a web portal, self-service, throttled access
D. Dedicated resources, usage-based pricing, web-based APIs
Answer: A

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NO.4 A development organization uses a PaaS service from a public cloud to develop and test an application.
Once sending and verification are complete, the development team discovers that the cloud services
uses proprietary software in the PaaS clustering mailing and deployment of the application within their
production data center imposition without significant application records.
What this type of lock-in called?
A. Geographical lock-in
B. Technology lock-in
C. Cloud lock-in
D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your client is considering a virtualized data center (VDC) as an investment in process improvement.
A VDC can improve the delivery of which business process?
A. Auditing
B. Business continuity / disaster recovery
C. Compliance
D. Capacity planning / management
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the first phase of the Virtual Data Center Design Process?
A. Evaluate technology options
B. Create plan
C. Perform initial analysis
D. Gather data
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is its approach to addressing performance issues during the Virtualize phrase of the cloud
maturity mode?
A. Selective
B. Investigative
C. Proactive
D. Reactive
Answer: D

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NO.8 When applying compliance principles to your company s VDC and cloud architectures, how should you
approach your information life cycle management strategy?
A. Data of reset
B. Archival and offsite storage
C. Production and backup
D. Inception to completion
Answer: B

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NO.9 A midsize company has deployed centralized storage and is currently planning to virtualize their servers.
They have considered their application into Tiers, with Tier 1 application requiring the same service and
performance levels of the current servers.
They have purchased new, high capacity servers for the virtualized environment and are planning to
consolidate several physical servers into a single hypervisor. They are know determining the bandwidth
requirements of the application in order to purchase the current number of FCME CNAs for each server.
The results of their analysis for Tier 1 application are as follows: Average SAN Bandwidth: 3 Gb/s
Average LAN Bandwidth: 2 Gb/s
What is the minimum number of CNAs they would need to install an each server to meet the bandwidth
required for the Tier 1 application while providing CAN redundancy and high availability?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the key business goal when consolidating by business application.?
A. Virtualize the compute environment for efficiency
B. Identify security gaps and increase security measures
C. Reduce footprint by decreasing energy and space requirements
D. Implement converged network technology for performance
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer has asked you to develop a framework for assuming that the cloud Part of this will resume
an assessment development.
Where should you lock first for assessment criteria and technologies?
A. International standards
B. Internal IT development
C. Company metadata
D. Industry best practices
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is a key VDC and cloud planning consideration for IT governance?
A. Change management
B. Regulations
C. Separation of duties
D. Creating trust zones
Answer: B

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NO.13 A large company with multiple heterogeneous arrays would like to take advantage of the performance
simplified management benefits of storage virtualization. They have a data center transformation pain that
includes producing power and cooling at a high priority.
Which storage virtualization method would meet their requirements?
A. Network-based storage tiering
B. Vertical storage tiering
C. Server-based storage tiering
D. Horizontal storage tiering
Answer: B

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NO.14 When using logging to maintain server security, which is the key element for intrusion detection and
should be contained the server logs?
A. Vulnerability scan that identifies susceptible services that are active on the server.
B. Results of penetration testing through uncover problem probable weaknesses.
C. An entry for each application transaction with details of the organization.
D. Alerts to suspicious activities that require further investigation.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What would you identify as a business application in applying IT as a Service to IT processions?
A. Defined workflow request processes
B. Funded as a cost center
C. Virtual data center best practices
D. SLA-driven management
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E22-192
Exam Name: EMC (Captiva Installation, Configuration, and Management Exam)
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Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer is required to send (and not return) InputAccel data to an external system via Web
Services.
Which component is responsible for this exchange of information?
A. Web Services Output
B. Web Services Coordinator
C. Web Services Hosting
D. Web Services Export
Answer: A

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NO.2 An Administrator reinstalls the InputAccel Server on new hardware after a disastrous hardware failure.
The Administrator uses the original CAF and LIC files from eighteen months ago to activate and license
the new server.
Why will this result in a non-functioning server?
A. The original CAF file contains invalid EnterBy dates
B. The original CAF file cannot be used on different hardware
C. The original LIC file cannot be used on different hardware
D. The original LIC file contains invalid EnterBy dates
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which component is required to run a report?
A. VBA code
B. Stored procedure
C. Client-Side Scripting
D. IPP code
Answer: B

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NO.4 A Developer modifies an IPP that was generated by CaptureFlow Designer.
Where can the IPP be maintained going forward?
A. CaptureFlow Designer
B. Dispatcher Manager
C. Process Developer
D. Free Form Designer
Answer: C

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NO.5 System requirements have been verified and InputAccel is ready to be installed. What is the correct
order of items to be installed?
A. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
Dispatcher for InputAccel client modules"
B. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Web Services
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
C. 1. InputAccel Server
InputAccel Database
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
D. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which module is used to automatically identify templates defined in a Dispatcher project?
A. Dispatcher manager
B. Classification Edit
C. Classification
D. Validation
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is required to synchronize the InputAccel Server to the InputAccel Database when moving the
database onto a new machine?
A. Reinstall ODBC Component
B. Reinstall InputAccel Server Component
C. Run Data Access Layer registration utility
D. Restart InputAccel service
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which steps are required to upgrade an InputAccel process to use replaced modules when migrating
from InputAccel 5.3 to 6.x?
No additional steps are required to migrate processes
A. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Recompile
Reinstall"
B. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Include new MDF files
Modify to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
C. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Add prepare routines for all new modules
Set manual retriggering
Include new MDF files
Modify IPP to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which module enables end users to perform quality assurance on scanned images and document
assembly?
A. IndexPlus
B. Image Enhancement
C. RescanPlus
D. NuanceOCR
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is one virtualization product that is compatible with InputAccel?
A. VirtualBox
B. XenServer
C. Hyper-V
D. OracleVM
Answer: B

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NO.11 In efforts to tighten InputAccel security, the Administrator is creating a new Supervisor role. The
Supervisor role should have access to the Administration Console and should be able to run client
modules.
What needs to be applied to the new Supervisor role?
A. Role members
B. Windows users and groups
C. Permissions
D. Access Control Lists (ACL)
Answer: C

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NO.12 Email import module supports POP3, POP3 SSL, and which other email protocol?
A. IMAP4
B. HTTP
C. MIME
D. MAPI
Answer: A

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NO.13 An end user needs to export a batch from the InputAccel Server using a system that does not have
client modules installed.
Which mechanism can be used to export the batch to a different directory as a zip archived file?
A. IACopy
B. Multi-Directory Watch
C. File System Export
D. Administration Console
Answer: D

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NO.14 A Developer needs to create a database query that will execute after the end user populates a field.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Configure a new log rule for the IndexPlus module to query the database.
B. Configure IndexPlus to make the database call.
C. Code a database query in IPP code's IndexPlus Finish event
D. Code a database query using Client-Side Scripting with IndexPlus
Answer: D

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NO.15 An Administrator receives new system requirements where the barcode contains multiple lines of data.
Which filter is used to read the barcode.?
A. Extended Bar Code Detection
B. Patch Code Detection
C. Bar Code Detection
D. Postal Bar Code Detection
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-390
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers )
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Total Q&A: 333 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A user is creating a dynamic disk on a Windows host. The first disk is fully utilized. Writes continue to
the next disk. Which volume type did they select?
A. Striped
B. Spanned
C. RAID 5
D. Mirrored
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which VNX feature is used to reclaim unused storage space?
A. LUN migration
B. LUN shrink
C. Thin provisioning
D. RAID group defragment
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for
Block?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It supports the separation of CIFS servers and their shares
B. It enables the replication of NFS exports
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover.
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bytes
B. 1024 bits
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bits
Answer: D

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NO.6 In a VNX array with FAST VP enabled, what is the size of the data slice (chunk) that can be relocated
between tiers?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB
Answer: A

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NO.7 How does the VNX handle LUN ownership changes so that the access path to the LUN is available to
both SPs simultaneously?
A. By the host software being aware of SP ownership
B. By the SPs sharing ownership of the LUNs
C. By using ALUA Failover Mode
D. By the LUN being trespassed.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator has finished configuring the zoning on their MDS-series switch and issues the
following command: zoneset activate name ActiveZS vsan 100
What happens?
A. Zoneset ActiveZS is activated on VSAN 100
B. Zoneset ActiveZS is created on VSAN 100
C. VSAN 100 is created and activated.
D. VSAN 100 is named ActiveZS
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS.?
A. CentOS
B. RedHat
C. Fedora
D. Debian
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are the severity levels available with Unisphere event notifications?
A. Critical and Informational
B. High and Low
C. Critical and Low
D. High and Warning
Answer: A

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NO.11 The preferred path to your VMware ESX host failed. Which native multi-pathing policy will revert to the
preferred path when it is restored?
A. Fixed only
B. MRU only
C. Round-robin
D. Bath Fixed and MRU
Answer: A

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NO.12 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured clone LUN?
A. Neither the clone LUN nor the fracture logs will be acquired by the peer SP
B. The peer SP acquires the fracture logs.
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the fracture logs.
D. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system?
A. <username>
B. <username>@FQDN
C. <domain>\<username>
D. <username>.FGDN
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1
Answer: C

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NO.15 Where in Unisphere do you assign FAST Cache to LUNs?
A. At the LUN level under a RAID group
B. At the LUN level under a storage pool
C. Under FAST Cache system properties
D. Under the Advanced tab of RAIDGROUP Properties
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are planning to add a new DAE to a VNX storage system. Doing so will exceed the supported total
drive count by four drives. What impact will this have on the operation of the VNX system?
A. The DAE will be recognized but four drive slots will not function.
B. All slots on the DAE will be available for use.
C. Connecting the new DAE will take the bus offline.
D. The DAE can be physically connected, but will not be available.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which utility on a Windows server can be used to view the HBA WWN details?
A. Unisphere Host Agent
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. HBAnywhere
D. Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.18 An administrator exports a newly created file system and finds two directories, called etc and
lost+found. The administrator does not want these directions to appear in the export.
What should the administrator do to address this issue?
A. The administrator should delete the directories
B. Create a subdirectory below the root of the file system and export it
C. Nothing, this is normal and these two directories will show in all exports
D. The administrator should change the attribute of these directories to hidden
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which CLI command displays the IP configuration of each Data Mover?
A. server_ifconfig
B. /sbin/ifconfig
C. server_sysconfig
D. server_devconfig
Answer: A

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NO.20 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host,
but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share
C. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings
Answer: C

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NO.1 During your design analysis you have gathered current storage configuration data and matched storage
volumes with server data. You have discovered some inconsistencies with the collected data.
What should the next step be?
A. Resolve any inconsistencies with the customer according to best practices.
B. Let the implementation engineer resolve the inconsistencies.
C. Note the inconsistencies and forward a redesign to the implementation engineer.
D. Resolve the inconsistencies yourself according to best practices.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The majority of your customer's servers have highly utilized database applications that require
predictable performance.
What type of storage do you recommend.?
A. RAID Groups with traditional LUNs
B. Storage groups with thick LUNs
C. Pool with traditional LUNs
D. RAID Groups with thin LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which RecoverPoint/SE data protection methodology enables block protection as well as a file DR
solution?
A. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
B. RecoverPoint/SE CLR
C. RecoverPointt/SE CDP
D. RecoverPoint/SE CDP and CRR
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your customer needs help understanding Unisphere statistics on a VNX, specifically the Number of
Write Cache Pages. How do you explain this metric to the customer?
A. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is derived from the sum of both SPs.
B. It is displayed per entire array, and the total number is half the sum of both SPs.
C. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is four times the sum of both SPs.
D. When FAST Cache is enabled, the number includes the FAST Cache plus the sum of both SPs.
Answer: A

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NO.5 While gathering performance data during peak workloads, which type of collection method is best
suited?
A. Larger periods of data collection over shorter intervals
B. Smaller periods of data collection over shorter intervals
C. Smaller periods of data collection over larger intervals
D. Larger periods of data collection over larger intervals
Answer: C

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NO.6 When interviewing customer personnel, you learn of two sets of requirements:
-The technical team has a specific set of requirements that they have to meet. -The manager has a
financial requirement that has to be met.
As you begin to design, it becomes clear that, in order to meet the technical goal, the financial
requirement will be exceeded. What should you do?
A. Let both teams know of the constraints and see if there can be a mutual resolution.
B. Since this is a technical project you should design to the technical team requirements.
C. Because the manager is paying for the equipment, limit the design to fit into the financial constraints.
D. Design to the technical requirement and then take enough storage out to meet the financial goal.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Your customer has purchased a VNX to upgrade the storage for an Exchange Server cluster. What tool
should you use to gather performance data from the Exchange cluster?
A. iostat
B. sar
C. esxtop
D. perfmon
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are preparing a detailed VNX presentation for a technically-oriented customer. VNX arrays have
been in their environment for over a year. One objective of the meeting is to go over historical data. The
customer indicated that they would like to see Unisphere statistics as part of the analysis.
Assuming that statistics logging was enabled from day one, how long does the Unisphere GUI keep its
real-time statistics?
A. Real-time statistics are stored for 1 month.
B. Real-time statistics cannot be saved to disk.
C. Real-time statistics are stored for 3 months, unless the frequency interval is less than 5 minutes.
D. Real-time statistics are stored indefinitely, but requires a dedicated collection server.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer wants to write a script that needs to list all linked remote VNX arrays for file-based
replication. What CLI command should you recommend?
A. nas_cel -list
B. nas_cel -info
C. nas_replicate -info
D. nas_replicate -list
Answer: A

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NO.10 When documenting the customer environment prior to a storage refresh, you discover that the
customer has an issue their backups do not complete every job. How should you proceed?
A. Have the customer resolve the issue before continuing.
B. Note the issue in the Statement of Work and continue with planning.
C. Open a case for the backup issue and resolve it yourself.
D. No actionrequired:SOW does not include resolving this type of issue.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX MPFS configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX gateway with FC
B. VNX with iSCSI/FC
C. VNX with iSCSI/FCoE
D. VNX gateway with MPFSi
Answer: D

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NO.12 While gathering existing customer environment information to provide a new VNX storage system
solution, you have found many different HBA types, servers, operating systems, and other SAN hardware.
Which wizard within E-Lab Navigator can be used to validate a new VNX storage solution?
A. SOE & Software Wizard
B. CLARiiON Host Attach Wizard
C. Switch Interoperability Wizard
D. Storage Array Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are gathering data from a customer environment. You have to process a number of configuration
reports.
What tool provides a simple method of processing the data gathering configuration?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. Collect Support Materials
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. CLARiiON Configuration Builder
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which protocols are the best solution for Grid Computing and High Performance Computing
environments?
A. iSCSI, FCoE
B. pNFS, MPFS
C. CIFS, NFS
D. FTP, SMB2
Answer: B

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX MPFS with iSCSI/FC
B. VNX MPFS with FC/FCoE
C. VNX gateway with iSCSI/FC
D. VNX gateway with FC
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-885
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
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Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 An administrator is attempting to vMotion a VM from one vSphere ESXi 5.0 host to another. The ESXi
servers are connected to three VNX arrays on the fabric. The vMotion fails. What is the most likely
reason?
A. RDMs are attached to the VM with different host LUN numbers on the ESXi servers.
B. There are active SnapView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
C. RDMs are in physical compatibility mode and not eligible for vMotion.
D. There are active MirrorView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has a CIFS DR solution with EMC VNX using a One-to-Many replication topology. The
customer asks you to explain replication behavior under the following conditions:
Production site failover or switchover to a DR site
Replication start and reverse is performed
What would you advise the customer?
A. The original production site remains a One-to-Many replication source for the other remaining DR sites.
B. All remaining replications sessions to the other DR sites are suspended.
C. The original production site goes into cascade mode to remain a replication source for the remaining
DR sites.
D. The DR site becomes the replication source for the remaining DR sites and the original production site
is marked as invalid.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block.
The customer reports NFS-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput via NFSv4 versus
the FC-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. I/O size
C. Host Patch levels
D. NFS version
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click on the calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A SQL database requires 1,000 I/O per second with 85% reads and 15% writes. If RAID 1/0 is used, what
is the total number of spindles required to generate the required I/O per second?
A. Ten 10K drives
B. Four 15K drives
C. One Flash drive
D. Fourteen 7.2K drives
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has two EMC VNX configured to replicate between sites. Each VNX has dual Control
Stations. The primary Control Station at the source site fails at 6 p.m. and reboots. At 8 p.m., the customer
completes DR testing and observes CIFS replication does not failover to the target site VNX. Why does
CIFS replication not failover to the target VNX during the DR test?
A. The control station of the primary VNX should have been failed back.
B. The control station of the second VNX should have been failed over.
C. The control station of the primary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
D. The control station of the secondary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block and each host generates the same size I/O.
The customer reports the FC-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput than the
NFS-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. Host Patch levels
C. Ethernet Network
D. NFS version
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer wants to replicate a CIFS environment from a legacy EMC Celerra to a new EMC VNX.
Users are able to access CIFS shares from both arrays. The CIFS shares are on different networks and
replication is not running. The customer wants to make sure there will be no network restrictions
preventing replication between the data movers on two different networks.
What TCP ports should they ask the network team to open?
A. 8888, 8887, 5081
B. 80, 443, 8080
C. 5057, 445, 5087
D. 23, 25, 22
Answer: A

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NO.8 A storage administrator reports they are unable configure SAN Copy connections between two VNX.
The required cabling is in place and zoning is correct, but the SP connections still do not appear in
Unisphere Manager. What could have caused this issue?
A. SAN Copy is not installed on both VNX arrays.
B. SAN Copy is only licensed for local copies.
C. The SP ports are already being used by hosts.
D. Both VNX arrays are not in the same domain.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer has two EMC VNX, one at the primary site and the other at a DR site located 100 km away.
The WAN connection between sites is a 100 Mb/s dark fiber link with 4 ms latency.
A previous storage administrator configured the pool LUNs for the file system on thin LUNs. The file
system is growing at a rate of 500 GB per week and is on a VDM. The new storage administrator reports
performance issues with the file system.
What is the most likely reason for the performance issue?
A. Thin LUNs are used for the file system.
B. The WAN link should be upgraded to an eLAN.
C. The VNX system requires an upgrade.
D. The file system has too many concurrent users connected.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A Pool used for FAST VP has the following configuration:
Flash drives: 1,000 GB, with 1,000 GB free
SAS drives: 5,000 GB, with 2,500 GB free
NL-SAS drives: 20,000 GB, with 11,500 GB free
The tiering policy is set to Auto. An additional 600 GB of new data is written to the Pool.
What is the data distribution after the data is written?
A. Flash drives: 960 GB free SAS drives: 2,400 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,040 GB free
B. Flash drives: 400 GB free SAS drives: 2,500 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
C. Flash drives: 900 GB free SAS drives: 2,000 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
D. Flash drives: 970 GB free SAS drives: 2,350 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,080GB free
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer recently purchased an EMC VNX to be connected to four ESXi 5.0 hosts via FC. Five of the
associated VMs (virtual machines) are running SQL Server 2008 R2. To avoid contention, the customer
wants the VM's database and log drives on separate datastores.
Which ESXi 5.0 feature would satisfy this requirement?
A. Network interface card teaming
B. Virtual Machine Anti-Affinity
C. Raw Device Mappings
D. VMDK Affinity
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer requests a performance review of their EMC VNX before FAST Cache is implemented.
You notice a dedicated LUN has a write size of 4 KB, and the disks are performing writes of 8 KB. What is
causing this behavior?
A. Coalescing
B. Pre-fetching
C. Flushing
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has an Oracle ASM database on an EMC VNX with FAST Suite enabled. They observe
intermittent performance degradation due to momentary data hot spots caused by bursty transaction rates.
What recommendation would you make to help alleviate these hot spots?
A. Enable Fast VP on the ASM LUNs
B. Modify the ASM rebalance power priority
C. Enable Fast Cache on the ASM LUNs
D. Disable ASM storage management
Answer: C

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NO.14 A client has an EMC VNX configured with four storage ports, four 15-drive DAEs (disk array
enclosures) and a total of forty drives (20 NL-SAS and 20 SAS drives). The client is using RAID 5 (4+1)
RAID groups with a traditional LUN configuration.
What is the recommended SAS LCC port configuration for optimal performance?
A. Distribute drives evenly across all ports
B. Distribute drives on all odd ports
C. Distribute drives on all even ports
D. Distribute drives on a single port
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer requires an asynchronous DR solution for an NFS-only client environment. The customer
wants the solution to be simple to implement. It was recommended they create a single NIS domain, and
use several NIS servers to provide centralized authentication to the NFS clients at both the source and
destination sites. The customer asks you whether they should consider using VDMs in this environment.
What do you advise?
A. VDMs would offer no advantages to this environment.
B. VDMs allow VMWare integration of NFS service environments.
C. VDMs eliminate the need for Usermapper in NFS environments.
D. VDMs allow for assignment of specific CPUs to a NFS server.
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer recently upgraded from vSphere v4.x to vSphere v5.0 to benefit from new VMFS-5 features
for their existing DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯ datastores on an EMC VNX. A second identically
configured VNX was implemented and the customer created two additional datastores on the new VNX.
After monitoring the environment, the customer notices the VMs on DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯
are not using the same sub-block structure as the two new datastores.
What is the reason for this behavior.?
A. The old VMs are on an upgraded VMFS-5 datastore.
B. The old VMs are still running old VMware tools.
C. The new VMFS-5 features need to be licensed and activated.
D. The new VMFS-5 cannot support two VNX storage systems.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer plans to connect ESXi 5.0 hosts to a new EMC VNX array. They want to take advantage of
the hardware-assisted locking feature in VAAI. Which is a feature of hardware-assisted locking?
A. Locking at the block level of a logical unit
B. Locking the LUN instead of the block level
C. Accessing a block from multiple hosts at the same time
D. Automatic enabling of safe data caching
Answer: A

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NO.18 A system administrator wants to migrate medical-imaging data stored on an EMC VNX. The host
connects to the VNX via iSCSI. The IP SAN infrastructure has recently been updated to support 1 Gb/10
GB switching. The system administrator wants to maximize data transfer performance. What would you
recommend?
A. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 9000 byte frame.
B. Use a 4 KB memory page size.
C. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 2400 byte frame.
D. Increase the write-aside value.
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer has a Windows-only environment connected to an EMC VNX for File at their main campus
site. The customer plans to install a new EMC VNX at a remote branch office site. The new VNX will be
used to implement a DR solution for their main campus VNX using several deduplicated file systems
shared and available to clients via CIFS.
Which solution do you recommend to the customer?
A. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
B. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
C. Use VNX SAN Copy to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from the
main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
D. Use VNX MirrorView/A to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from
the main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are planning a CIFS DR solution for two existing EMC VNX. Each VNX has dual Control Stations.
Each VNX is also configured for a RecoverPoint protection solution on other VNX LUNs that are non-file
related. What recommendation would you give the customer concerning the CIFS DR solution?
A. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems before
configuring VNX Replicator
B. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems after
configuring VNX Replicator
C. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator,
and then configure IP aliasing on the destination VNX system Control Stations after configuring VNX
Replicator.
D. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator
and use RecoverPoint to provide protection of the source VNX Control Stations to the destination VNX.
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the last bit of each pixel byte in an image called?
A.Last significant bit
B.Least significant bit
C.Least important bit
D.Null bit
Answer: B

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NO.2 Why is it still possible to recover files that have been emptied from the Recycle Bin on a Windows
computer?
A.The data is still present until the original location of the file is used
B.The data is moved to the Restore directory and is kept there indefinitely
C.The data will reside in the L2 cache on a Windows computer until it is manually deleted
D.It is not possible to recover data that has been emptied from the Recycle Bin
Answer: A

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NO.3 When carrying out a forensics investigation, why should you never delete a partition on a dynamic
disk?
A.All virtual memory will be deleted
B.The wrong partition may be set to active
C.This action can corrupt the disk
D.The computer will be set in a constant reboot state
Answer: C

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NO.4 In conducting a computer abuse investigation you become aware that the suspect of the investigation
is using ABC Company as his Internet Service Provider (ISP). You contact the ISP and request that they
provide you assistance with your investigation. What assistance can the ISP provide?
A.The ISP can investigate anyone using their service and can provide you with assistance
B.The ISP can investigate computer abuse committed by their employees, but must preserve the privacy
of their ustomers and therefore cannot assist you without a warrant
C.The ISP cannot conduct any type of investigations on anyone and therefore cannot assist you
D.ISPs never maintain log files so they would be of no use to your investigation
Answer: B

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NO.5 A picture file is recovered from a computer under investigation. During the investigation process, the
file is enlarged 500% to get a better view of its contents. The pictures quality is not degraded at all from
this process. What kind of picture is this file?
A.Raster image
B.Vector image
C.Metafile image
D.Catalog image
Answer: B

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NO.6 What information do you need to recover when searching a victims computer for a crime committed
with
specific e-mail message?
A.Internet service provider information
B.E-mail header
C.Username and password
D.Firewall log
Answer: B

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NO.7 In the following Linux command, what is the outfile?
dd if=/usr/bin/personal/file.txt of=/var/bin/files/file.txt
A./usr/bin/personal/file.txt
B./var/bin/files/file.txt
C./bin/files/file.txt
D.There is not outfile specified
Answer: B

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NO.8 What will the following Linux command accomplish?
dd if=/dev/mem of=/home/sam/mem.bin bs=1024
A.Copy the master boot record to a file
B.Copy the contents of the system folder mem to a file
C.Copy the running memory to a file
D.Copy the memory dump file to an image file
Answer: C

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NO.9 A forensics investigator is searching the hard drive of a computer for files that were recently moved to
the Recycle Bin. He searches for files in C:\RECYCLED using a command line tool but does not find
anything. What is the reason for this?
A.He should search in C:\Windows\System32\RECYCLED folder
B.The Recycle Bin does not exist on the hard drive
C.The files are hidden and he must use a switch to view them
D.Only FAT system contains RECYCLED folder and not NTFS
Answer: C

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NO.10 When a router receives an update for its routing table, what is the metric value change to that path?
A.Increased by 2
B.Decreased by 1
C.Increased by 1
D.Decreased by 2
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which forensic investigating concept trails the whole incident from how the attack began to how the
victim was
affected?
A.Point-to-point
B.End-to-end
C.Thorough
D.Complete event analysis
Answer: B

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NO.12 While searching through a computer under investigation, you discover numerous files that appear to
have had
the first letter of the file name replaced by
the hex code byte E5h. What does this indicate on the computer?
A.The files have been marked as hidden
B.The files have been marked for deletion
C.The files are corrupt and cannot be recovered
D.The files have been marked as read-only
Answer: B

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NO.13 What hashing method is used to password protect Blackberry devices?
A.AES
B.RC5
C.MD5
D.SHA-1
Answer: D

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NO.14 A suspect is accused of violating the acceptable use of computing resources, as he has visited adult
websites and downloaded images. The investigator wants to demonstrate that the suspect did indeed visit
these sites. However, the suspect has cleared the search history and emptied the cookie cache.
Moreover, he has removed any images he might have downloaded. What can the investigator do to prove
the violation? Choose the most feasible option.
A.Image the disk and try to recover deleted files
B.Seek the help of co-workers who are eye-witnesses
C.Check the Windows registry for connection data (You may or may not recover)
D.Approach the websites for evidence
Answer: A

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NO.15 Madison is on trial for allegedly breaking into her universitys internal network. The police raided her
dorm room and seized all of her computer equipment. Madisons lawyer is trying to convince the judge that
the seizure was unfounded and baseless. Under which US Amendment is Madisons lawyer trying to
prove the police violated?
A.The 10th Amendment
B.The 5th Amendment
C.The 1st Amendment
D.The 4th Amendment
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are working as an independent computer forensics investigator and receive a call from a systems
administrator for a local school system requesting
your assistance. One of the students at the local high school is suspected of downloading inappropriate
images from the Internet to a PC in the Computer Lab.
When you arrive at the school, the systems administrator hands you a hard drive and tells you that he
made a simple backup copy of the hard drive in the PC
and put it on this drive and requests that you examine the drive for evidence of the suspected images. You
inform him that a simple backup copy will not provide deleted files or recover file fragments. What type of
copy do you need to make to ensure that the evidence found is complete and admissible in future
proceedings?
A.Bit-stream copy
B.Robust copy
C.Full backup copy
D.Incremental backup copy
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which legal document allows law enforcement to search an office, place of business, or other locale for
evidence relating to an alleged crime?
A.Search warrant
B.Subpoena
C.Wire tap
D.Bench warrant
Answer: A

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NO.18 Sectors in hard disks typically contain how many bytes?
A.256
B.512
C.1024
D.2048
Answer: B

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NO.19 The efforts to obtain information before a trial by demanding documents, depositions, questions and
answers written under oath, written requests for admissions of fact, and examination of the scene is a
description of what legal term?
A.Detection
B.Hearsay
C.Spoliation
D.Discovery
Answer: D

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NO.20 A forensics investigator needs to copy data from a computer to some type of removable media so he
can
examine the information at another location. The
problem is that the data is around 42GB in size. What type of removable media could the investigator
use?
A.Blu-Ray single-layer
B.HD-DVD
C.Blu-Ray dual-layer
D.DVD-18
Answer: C

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NO.1 John works as an Office Assistant in DataSoft Inc. He has received an e-mail from
duesoft_lotterygroup@us.com with the following message:
The DueSoft Lottery Incorporation
This is to inform you that you have just won a prize of $7,500.00 for this year's Annual Lottery promotion,
which was organized by Msn/Yahoo Lottery in conjunction with DueSoft. We collect active online e-mails
and select five people every year as our winners through an electronic balloting machine. Please reply
within three days of receiving this e-mail with your full details like Name, Address, Sex, Occupation, Age,
State, Telephone number, and Country to claim your prize.
If John replies to this e-mail, which of the following attacks may he become vulnerable to?
A. Salami attack
B. Man-in-the-Middle attack
C. Phishing attack
D. DoS attack
Answer: C

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NO.2 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company requires a secure wireless
network. To provide security, you are configuring ISA Server 2006 as a firewall. While configuring
ISA Server 2006, which of the following is NOT necessary?
A. Defining how ISA Server would cache Web contents
B. Defining ISA Server network configuration
C. Setting up of monitoring on ISA Server
D. Configuration of VPN access
Answer: D

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NO.3 Firewalking is a technique that can be used to gather information about a remote network protected by a
firewall. This technique can be used effectively to perform information gathering attacks. In this technique,
an attacker sends a crafted packet with a TTL value that is set to expire one hop past the firewall. Which
of the following are pre-requisites for an attacker to conduct firewalking?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ICMP packets leaving the network should be allowed.
B. An attacker should know the IP address of the last known gateway before the firewall.
C. There should be a backdoor installed on the network.
D. An attacker should know the IP address of a host located behind the firewall.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements best describes a certification authority?
A. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a public key and a private key pair fordata
encryption.
B. A certification authority is an entity that issues digital certificates for use by other parties.
C. A certification authority is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using
computercryptography.
D. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a single key to encrypt and decryp t data.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol that allows individuals communicating over a
non-secure network to prove their identity to one another in a secure manner. Which of the following
statements are true about the Kerberos authentication scheme?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Kerberos requires continuous availability of a central server.
B. Kerberos builds on Asymmetric key cryptography and requires a trusted third party.
C. Dictionary and brute force attacks on the initial TGS response to a client may reveal the
subject'spasswords.
D. Kerberos requires the clocks of the involved hosts to be synchronized.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Linux traffic monitoring tools are used to monitor and quickly detect faults in the network or a system.
Which of the following tools are used to monitor traffic of the Linux operating system?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PsExec
B. IPTraf
C. MRTG
D. PsLogList
E. Ntop
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.7 Which of the following is the first computer virus that was used to infect the boot sector of storage
media formatted with the DOS File Allocation Table (FAT) file system?
A. I love you
B. Melissa
C. Tequila
D. Brain
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have just set up a wireless network for customers at a coffee shop. Which of the following are
good security measures to implement?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using WEP encryption
B. Using WPA encryption
C. Not broadcasting SSID
D. MAC filtering the router
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which of the following types of attacks cannot be prevented by technical measures only?
A. Brute force
B. Ping flood attack
C. Smurf DoS
D. Social engineering
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following needs to be documented to preserve evidences for presentation in court?
A. Incident response policy
B. Account lockout policy
C. Separation of duties
D. Chain of custody
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for protocol conversion, data encryption/decryption,
and data compression?
A. Transport layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Data-link layer
D. Network layer
Answer: B

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NO.12 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He is using a tool to crack the wireless encryption keys. The description of
the tool is as follows:
Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. AirSnort
B. Kismet
C. PsPasswd
D. Cain
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following attacks CANNOT be detected by an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
B. E-mail spoofing
C. Port scan attack
D. Shoulder surfing
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Which of the following representatives of incident response team takes forensic backups of the systems
that are the focus of the incident?
A. Lead investigator
B. Information security representative
C. Technical representative
D. Legal representative
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Intercepting proxy server
B. Anonymous proxy server
C. Reverse proxy server
D. Tunneling proxy server
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following security policies will you implement to keep safe your data when you connect
your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using a protocol analyzer on your Laptop to monitor for risks.
B. Using an IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity.
C. Using portscanner like nmap in your network.
D. Using personal firewall software on your Laptop.
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word ___is software that is a subcategory of malware and refers to
unwanted software that performs malicious actions on a user's computer. Some its examples are Trojan,
adware, and spyware.
A. Crimeware
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following security protocols are based on the 802.11i standard.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. WEP
B. WPA2
C. WPA
D. WEP2
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are true about routers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Routers are responsible for making decisions about which of several paths network (orInternet)traffic
will follow.
B. Routers do not limit physical broadcast traffic.
C. Routers organize addresses into classes, which are used to determine how to move packets fromone
network to another.
D. Routers act as protocol translators and bind dissimilar networks.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 You are responsible for security at a company that uses a lot of Web applications. You are most
concerned about flaws in those applications allowing some attacker to get into your network. What
method would be best for finding such flaws?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Manual penetration testing
C. Automated penetration testing
D. Code review
Answer: A

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