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Exam Code: 250-510
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What are two benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide? (Select two.)
A.provides accurate measurement of encrypted outgoing email
B.gives insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identifies who has access to sensitive data
D.indicates where sensitive data is being sent
E.measures encryption strength for sensitive data
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which file on the endpoint machine stores messages that are temporarily cached when using two-tier
policies such as IDM or EDM?
A.is.ead
B.ttds.ead
C.ks.ead
D.cg.ead
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
Answer: AE

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NO.5 Which response rule action will be ignored when using an Exact Data Matching (EDM) policy?
A.Endpoint: Notify
B.Network: Block HTTP/HTTPS
C.Protect: Quarantine File
D.Network: Remove HTTP/HTTPS Content
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A.Network Discover
B.Network Protect
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which plug-in can connect to Microsoft Active Directory (AD)?
A.CSV Lookup
B.Live LDAP Lookup
C.Active Directory Integration Lookup
D.Directory Server Lookup
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two products can be run on virtual servers? (Select two.)
A.Endpoint Discover
B.Endpoint Prevent
C.Network Monitor
D.Enforce
E.Network Prevent
Answer: DE

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NO.9 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.policy creation
B.detection of incidents
C.inspection of network communication
D.identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are two valid reasons for adding notes to incidents? (Select two.)
A.to provide incident detail to policy violators
B.to allow the next responder to more quickly prioritize incidents for review
C.to allow the next responder to more quickly understand the incident history
D.to provide detail when closing an incident
E.to provide incident detail for report filtering
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Incident Dashboard
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

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NO.12 How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident
response team?
A.Match count thresholds are set.
B.More than one policy is enabled.
C.Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.
D.Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What must be running on a Linux Enforce server to enable the Symantec Data Loss Prevention user
interface?
A.selinux
B.iptables
C.xwindows
D.ssh
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are two examples of confidential data? (Select two.)
A.manufacturing plant locations
B.published press releases
C.stock performance history
D.CAD drawings
E.employee health information
Answer: DE

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NO.16 Which detection server setting enables detecting text within markup language tags?
A.ContentExtraction.MarkupAsText
B.ContentExtraction.EnableMetaData
C.Detection.EncodingGuessingEnabled
D.Lexer.Validate
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A.date fields
B.numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C.column names in the first row
D.country, state, or province names
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two statements describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select two.)
A.DLP is best implemented as a departmental initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by the network team.
C.An incident response team is rarely required.
D.Employee education is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
Answer: DE

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NO.19 Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent? (Select
two.)
A.test the agent on a variety of end-user images
B.initially enable monitoring of the local file system
C.enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously
D.configure, test, and tune filters
E.configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A.manually quarantine files
B.automatically quarantine files on file shares
C.modify a response within a policy
D.automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E.apply digital rights to content
Answer: AE

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Exam Code: ST0-29B
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 MR 4(STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 If a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client is installed with AntiVirus and AntiSpyware components
only, what must be done to install the SEP Firewall?
A. redeploy the original installation package to the client
B. deploy the firewall license file to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
C. deploy a new package including the firewall component
D. deploy a firewall policy to that client through an XML file
Answer: C

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NO.2 When using the Push Deployment Wizard, which two methods can be used to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A.browse through Windows networking
B.import a file containing IP addresses
C.specify a UNC path
D.import a file containing MAC addresses
E.import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 Which file contains the Symantec Endpoint Protection client communication settings?
A. GRC.dat
B. Sylink.xml
C. GRC.xml
D. Sylink.dat
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two actions are available when TruScan Proactive Threat Scan detects a trojan or worm?
(Select two.)
A.delete
B.ignore
C.terminate
D.quarantine
E.clean
Answer: C, D

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NO.5 In which client management log can an administrator identify when the client last connected to the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Control
B. Traffic
C. System
D. Event
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two actions can the Centralized Exception policy perform? (Select two.)
A.exclude a specific folder from AntiVirus and AntiSpyware File System Auto-Protect scanning
B.specify an exclusion to keep a known risk from being scanned
C.specify machines from which the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console cannot be run
D.exclude forwarding of certain log types from the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
E.specify Intrusion Prevention system signatures for exclusion
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

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NO.8 What can an administrator do to proactively obtain information about unknown devices on a network?
A. script a network audit using the Find Unmanaged Computers feature
B. create an Unmanaged Computer notification
C. schedule an audit report to send to the administrator
D. schedule regular LDAP synchronization
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which feature can be configured to increase or decrease performance of scheduled scans?
A. scan frequency
B. CPU throttling
C. heartbeat interval
D. tuning options
Answer: D

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NO.10 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

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NO.11 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.13 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the default replication frequency when adding an additional site to a Symantec Endpoint
Protection deployment?
A. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
C. daily
D. weekly
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which setting can be enabled to report computers without a Symantec Endpoint Protection Agent?
A. LAN Detector
B. Unmanaged Detector
C. Segment Detector
D. Network Detector
Answer: D

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NO.17 Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from
Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)
A.disable Auto-Protect
B.disable scheduled scans
C.disable Tamper Protection
D.scan all clients
E.purge the quarantine
Answer: B, C

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NO.18 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

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NO.19 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

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NO.20 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. unlimited
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-086
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010(STS))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 127 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 In an organization, users are commonly working on their computers while Backups are occurring.
To improve application performance for users, how is Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
tuned tor user performance to take priority over backups?
A. adjust Default Performance
B. suspend backups while the system is active
C. change Connection Mode
D. enable the Computer Responsiveness setting
Answer: A

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NO.2 Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Is installed on a windows Server 2003 it Is then
used to deploy agents to five remote computers running windows Server 2003. and nve computers
running windows 7 Enterprise.
Regardless of the edition. how many total BESR licenses are required to license all machines in the
environment?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
E. 11
Answer: E

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NO.3 A computer is currently managed by Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery Manager 8.5. The
administrator needs to manage that computer using Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution.
Which component will be removed during migration?
A. Altihs plug-in
B. Altihs Agent
C. Management Console
D. Management Control
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which backup method is available with Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. independent recovery point backup
B. recovery point set backup
C. incremental backup
D. file and folder backup
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two options are available to configure FTP offsite copy? (Select two)
A. Failover to alternate site
B. secure FTP
C. Limit connection attempts to
D. Connection mode
E. Limit number of copies
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 An administrator needs to configure the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Event log
logging level for only the most critical problems.
Which two steps are required to accomplish this? (Select two).
A. set the type of messages to High Priority Messages
B. set the type of messages to All Messages
C. set the type of messages to Medium and High Priority Messages
D. check the Errors check Dox
E. check the Errors and warnings check Dox
F. check me Errors, warnings, and informational check Dox
Answer: A, D

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NO.7 Which two options must be installed to migrate managed client computers from Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery Manager 85 (BESR) to Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. BESR plug-in
C. Symantec Installation Manager
D. Symantec ThreatCon
E. BESR Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 Using the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Management Solution, an administrator can
define which two types or backup policies? (Select two)
A. Backup Point Set
B. File and Folder Policy
C. Recovery Point Set
D. Independent Backup Point
E. Independent Recovery Point
Answer: C, E

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NO.9 What is the first required step tor managing computers from Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 Management Solution?
A. create resource targets
B. define backup policies
C. install the Alans Agent
D. discover computers on the network
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two options will activate the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) evaluation
period? (Select two.)
A. beginning the BESR installation program
B. running a dnve-based or file and folder backup
C. booting a system from the System Recovery Disk (SRD)
D. defining a drive-based or file and folder backup
E. completing the BESR Installation program
Answer: B, D

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NO.11 Which tool is used in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 to control permissions?
A. Permission Configuration tool
B. Rote-Dased Administration tool
C. Security Configuration tool
D. User Access Control tool
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the minimum amount of memory required to run Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 for Linux17
A. 256 MB
B. 384 MB
C. 512MB
D. 1 GB
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which type of backup task for Linux is supported oy Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. offsite copy
B. recovery point set
C. file and folder backup
D. independent recovery point
Answer: D

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NO.14 An administrator has an internal drive that is only used for temporary storage. Which option must De
configured to disable status reporting for this drive?
A. Error Only status reporting
B. Configure status reporting
C. No status reporting
D. Full status reporting
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is me minimum memory that LightsOut Restore requires to run?
A. 512MB
B. 768 MB
C. 1 GB
D. 2 GB
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which option must be installed prior to installing Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Symantec Installation Manager
C. Symantec Backup Exec Infrastructure Manager
D. Symantec LiveUpdate
Answer: B

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NO.17 When installing the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Agent on Windows Server 2008,
which two services are automatically installed on the host computer? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Alert service
B. Symantec SymSnap VSS Provider service
C. Symantec pcAnywhere Host service
D. SymSnapService service
E. Symantec FiashSnap service
Answer: B, D

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NO.18 An administrator needs to create a new destination for the backup of a server with Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Management Solution.
Which server requires access to the location?
A. the client server
B. the BESR Management Solution database server
C. the BESR Management Solution server
D. the UveUpdate server
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which functionality found in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Windows Edition is also
available in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. converting an image file to a virtual hard disk
B. creating a backup every month on a specified day
C. managing backups using a local graphical console
D. restoring an entire computer to the same hardware
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which configuration feature of Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 allows the recovery of
a remote machine by removing the requirement for external boot media?
A. Restore Anyware
B. LightsOut Restore
C. Cold Image Restore
D. Symantec pcAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.1 A Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) administrator has written a simple Perl script to
convert HEX format to a dotted decimal number to aid forensic analysis of attack packets recorded by the
Network Intrusion Detection system. They have used this script in a user action. However, the user action
is failing. What is the problem?
A. Only shell scripts are supported for custom user actions.
B. Perl interpreter is not installed on the Archive Server.
C. Only Java scripts are supported for custom user action.
D. Perl interpreter is not installed on the SSIM client machine.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In Control Compliance Suite (CCS) Reporting and Analytics, where do administrators add content for
new regulations not already included?
A. from the CCS Console, in "Manage > Polices" select "New Regulation"
B. in Content Studio, choose "Mandates", right-click, and then choose "New Regulation"
C. New regulations cannot be added to Reporting and Analytics.
D. from a SQL script, write an INSERT statement to create the new content on the SQL Database Server
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company reports that Windows Data Collection jobs using the RMS data collector never complete.
UNIX Data Collection jobs complete normally. The administrator suspects that one of the Slave Query
Engines might be failing to respond. Which troubleshooting step should be used to determine which Slave
Query Engine might be hanging?
A. from the RMS Console, log in under the Data Processor Service Account, and check the "Task Status"
screen
B. on the Information server, review the Application log
C. in bv-Config, check the "Query Engine Diagnostics- Master" for Slave Query Engine job statuses
D. in the Control Compliance Suite Console, on the Settings > System Topology Menu, Choose "Monitor
System Jobs"
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator sees the following in the agent log: ERROR [Logging]
com.symantec.management.security. HostnameVerificationFailureException SESA Agent
Symc_ConfigProvider: Failed to bootstrap to primary management server https: What are two reasons for
this? (Select two.)
A. The name resolution is not working.
B. Agent failed to download the SSL certificate.
C. There is a hostname mismatch with the SSL certificate.
D. Another host with same hostname is already registered.
E. Bootstrapping is disabled on the Information Manager.
Answer: A, E

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NO.5 A company is receiving "disk full" errors on the volume hosting the RMS Information server database.
They are running native RMS queries and saving the historical reports. What is the process for deleting
outdated RMS historical data sets?
A. from the Control Compliance Suite Console, under the System > General > Data Purge menu,
configure the Purge Settings to run a data purge job
B. from the RMS console, run an RMS Query using the "Show Advanced Data Sources" option, and use
Active Admin to delete historical data
C. on the Information server, stop the BVProcessManager Service, then stop and restart the SQL Server
Service, then restart the BVProcessManager Service
D. on the Information server, stop all RMS Services, and then use the Microsoft command-line tool
"OSQL.EXE" to purge the "QUERY_RESULTS" table
Answer: B

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NO.1 The WDE Disk Administrator Passphrase allows an administrator to?
A. Log into the PGP Universal Server.
B. Authenticate at BootGuard on any system in the Consumer Policy.
C. Change a user WDRT from the server.
D. Run a bypass on the user system even if it is powered down.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Dictionaries can be used to add users to Consumer Groups or used for Mail Policy processing, but
they cannot be used to configure a Consumer Policy.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 There are several administrative levels available for logging into PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Clustering can be done during or after installation and setup of a PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 What methods can be used by Web Messengers to authenticate to an inbox?
A. LDAP, Dictionary or Passphrase
B. Token, Passphrase, or TPM
C. Passphrase, LDAP, Radius
D. Ignition key, LDAP, Radius
Answer: C

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NO.6 Advanced user mode for PGP NetShare is the recommended method to encrypt all files.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 It is possible to prevent a folder from being PGP NetShare protected.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Bob, an external user, has just downloaded and installed PGP Satellite from a PGP Universal Server
managing the example.com domain. Which of the following statements is true?
A. PGP Satellite will encrypt all email Bob sends to any domain.
B. PGP Satellite will only encrypt email that Bob sends to the example.com domain.
C. Bob is added to the example.com PGP Universal Server as an internal user.
D. It is now too late for Bob to change his delivery preference.
Answer: B

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NO.9 When Bob receives his first Web Messenger message, one of his options for securing future
messages could be "PGP Universal Satellite".
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the newest standard for secure message processing?
A. PGP/MIME
B. PGP Partitioned
C. SMIME
D. RSA
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following will cause Silent Enrollment to fail.?
A. Directory Synchronization is enabled and there are multiple directories enabled.
B. LDAP Enrollment is enabled but the Bind DN has been entered correctly.
C. Key Reconstruction is enabled.
D. The Windows username / password are different than the LDAP credentials for the user.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following PGP Desktop utilities has a command line interface?
A. PGP NetShare
B. PGP Zip
C. PGP Virtual Disk
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.13 ADKs are only used for Messaging.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your customer's PGP Universal Server is running in Learn Mode and they want to automatically create
external users. How could this be done?
A. By simply sending email to external users (with a no-key policy of Smart Trailer or Web Messenger).
B. By configuring Directory Synchronization to import external users? keys.
C. By enabling the Verified Directory service (so that external users can manually upload their keys).
D. It is not possible to automatically create external users in Learn Mode.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The application whitelist only works if the files are stored in a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.16 The Verified Directory is required to receive encrypted mail.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.17 An Additional Decryption Key (or ADK):
A. Is often split into shares for security.
B. Can be used for decryption of files and emails.
C. Should only be used in situations clearly defined by an organization's security policies.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.18 If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A. The file is decrypted
B. The file remains encrypted
C. The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D. If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E. It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.19 PGP Desktop is required to use the Out Of Mail Stream (OOMS) feature of PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.20 PGP Desktop can perform SMIME and / or PGP encryption.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-402
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1)
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Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application. During deployment, the administrator
determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be changed without modifying the MSI. The
administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package. Which policies would
be affected when the default install command line of a software package is modified in the Software
Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.2 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the Managed
Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new application. What
should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator needs to use the Deployment Solution task listed below in a job that will be used to
capture an image of a computer running Windows XP. Prepare for Image capture Which two configuration
steps must be completed before the task can be created? (Select two.)
A. enable PXE
B. create a system configuration
C. create a sysprep token
D. upload the applicable deploy.cab file
E. add an OS license key
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1? (Select two.)
A. Service Desk
B. CMDB Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Wise Package Studio Professional
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 A patch administrator is preparing to deploy new patches. The administrator needs to avoid applying
Microsoft updates to the wrong operating systems. How should the administrator deploy the patches?
A. by creating a Software Update policy to distribute the updates
B. by configuring the Import Patch Data for Microsoft task and only including applicable updates
C. by staging the update for each operating system in the test environment
D. by only applying updates to the Target with applicable computers when creating a Software Update
policy
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog. There is a duplicate for a
software resource. The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and
selected the option to merge duplicate resources. What will happen to the duplicate entries in the
Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate is deleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the newest
timestamp is deleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry with the
oldest timestamp is deleted.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A software was virtualized during a Managed Software Delivery installation. Which method must be
used to manage the layer?
A. Virtual Composer task
B. Software Virtualization Command task
C. Package Delivery task
D. Quick Delivery task
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight Alert
Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running. Which
policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.9 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be updated.
Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have been updated,
the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the database. However,
after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an old date instead
of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because several
policies were modified at the same time.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though the
agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.10 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application from
running on company computers. Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented
from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.11 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints across a
company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification Server is
slower during the inventory scan times. Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to
reduce the processing impact on the Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weekly schedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management.? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire 2099" has
been installed on company desktops. The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the
company standard browser toolbar and needs to be removed immediately. The administrator has also
been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that they can receive a private email
about the situation. Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an application. B.Inventory
Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application is executed.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 A group of computers are received from a computer manufacturer with a list of corresponding MAC
addresses. To facilitate the imaging of the computers, the list is modified and then imported to
Deployment Solution, creating new computer accounts. In a lab, all computers are started and booted into
WinPE automation. In the console, a job is assigned to each computer appropriate to its hardware; but the
computers never get the tasks or run the jobs. What is a likely reason for this behavior?
A. The number of concurrent tasks assigned for imaging is overwhelming the SQL server.
B. The computer records in the database are missing necessary key information to properly identify the
computers.
C. The network addresses assigned to the computers in the lab are outside the SBS configured ranges.
D. New computers must first check in and be given a GUID in the console before being assigned a name
and corresponding jobs or tasks.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-135
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 Technical Assessment )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 220 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.9 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.10 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.14 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.17 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

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NO.20 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.22 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.23 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.24 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.25 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.26 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.28 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.29 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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