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Exam Code: ST0-025
Exam Name: Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS)
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Exam Code: ST0-096
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NO.1 A DLP administrator needs to forward data loss incidents to the company's Security
Information and Event Management (SIEM) system.Which response rule action provides the
administrator with the ability to accomplish this task?
A. All: Send Email Notification
B. All: Log to a Syslog Server
C. All: Add Note
D. All: Set Attribute
Answer: B

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NO.2 An incorrectable I/O error has occurred on a RAID volume due to a disk failure that caused
the data on the disk to become unavailable. For the RAID volume, the subdisk becomes unavailable
and is considered stale and detached.What is the RAID level in the volume in this situation?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are managing a Storage Foundation 5.0 server that has Storage Foundation Management
Server (SFMS) software installed. You force a placement policy to a file system using the Storage
Foundation Management Server (SFMS).
What is the outcome when a policy is forced to a file system?
A. The current policies of the file system are overwritten by the SFMS policies.
B. The file system will retain its policies and discard the SFMS policies.
C. The file system will incorporate the changes of both the policies.
D. The file system will apply the SFMS policies only in the case where its own policies cannot be
assigned.
Answer: A

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NO.4 After installing Veritas Enterprise Administrator, you start the VEA with the profile name that
you have specified.When you click the Console View, what does it display? (Select two.)
A. Active Events
B. Volume Summary
C. Alerts
D. Disk History
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which valid automated response option should an administrator choose for Email Prevent?
A. modify the message subject or add specific RFC-2822 headers
B. add metadata to email headers of confidential email
C. modify the body of email messages containing confidential data
D. process confidential email re-routed to a specified email list
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two locations can the administrator verify a newly created policy was loaded on a
detection server? (Select two.)
A. System > Servers > Overview
B. System > Servers > Server Detail
C. Manage > Policies > Policy List
D. System > Servers > Overview > Configure Server
E. System > Servers > Events
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 What is the minimum percentage of spare disks in a disk group?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: A

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NO.8 When you attempt to start the RAID-5 volume, you are prompted with an error message
"VxVM ERROR V-5-1-1237 Volume r5vol is not startable; some subdisks are unusable and the parity
is stale." You want to remove this error and start the RAID-5 volume.
How will you ensure that you do not encounter this error again?
A. Use a single RAID-5 log plex in RAID-5 volumes.
B. Change the subdisks.
C. Use two or more RAID-5 log plexes in RAID-5 volumes.
D. Reattach the subdisks.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ASC-066
Exam Name: ASC EndPoint Management Assessment
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Exam Code: ST0-134
Exam Name: Symantec EndPoint Protection 12.1 Technical Assessment
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NO.1 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most
granular level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: CD

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NO.2 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason
for this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms
like W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection
layers against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator creates a new domain in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console. How
can the administrator copy policies from the old domain to the new domain?
A. Export the policy from the old domain and import it into the new domain.
B. Copy the policy in the old domain and paste the policy into the new domain.
C. Copy the old domain's policy XML file into the folder for the new domain.
D. Back up the old domain's database and restore it into the new domain.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.8 According to Symantec, what is a botnet?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-119
Exam Name: Altiris (TM) Client Management Suite 7.1 Technical Assessmen
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Exam Code: ST0-086
Exam Name: Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010(STS)
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NO.1 Which two options will activate the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) evaluation
period? (Select two.)
A. beginning the BESR installation program
B. running a dnve-based or file and folder backup
C. booting a system from the System Recovery Disk (SRD)
D. defining a drive-based or file and folder backup
E. completing the BESR Installation program
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 When installing the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Agent on Windows Server 2008,
which two services are automatically installed on the host computer? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Alert service
B. Symantec SymSnap VSS Provider service
C. Symantec pcAnywhere Host service
D. SymSnapService service
E. Symantec FiashSnap service
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 What is the minimum amount of memory required to run Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 for Linux17
A. 256 MB
B. 384 MB
C. 512MB
D. 1 GB
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the first required step tor managing computers from Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 Management Solution?
A. create resource targets
B. define backup policies
C. install the Alans Agent
D. discover computers on the network
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which functionality found in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Windows Edition is also
available in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. converting an image file to a virtual hard disk
B. creating a backup every month on a specified day
C. managing backups using a local graphical console
D. restoring an entire computer to the same hardware
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which option must be installed prior to installing Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Symantec Installation Manager
C. Symantec Backup Exec Infrastructure Manager
D. Symantec LiveUpdate
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which backup method is available with Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. independent recovery point backup
B. recovery point set backup
C. incremental backup
D. file and folder backup
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator has an internal drive that is only used for temporary storage. Which option must De
configured to disable status reporting for this drive?
A. Error Only status reporting
B. Configure status reporting
C. No status reporting
D. Full status reporting
Answer: C

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NO.1 when viewing the backup status of a computer in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Management
Solution, which two Backup, reporting statuses can a user view for the selected drives? (Select two.)
A. Full Status Reporting
B. DriveStatus Reporting
C. Group Status Reporting
D. Backup Status Reporting
E. No Status Reporting
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which command can be run to allow network access to the computer during a Unix-based recovery
from a Symantec Recovery Disk.?
A. network eth0start
B. ifup
C. service network up
D. eth0service restart
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which wizard should an administrator select from the Symantec Recovery Disk to Degin a Virtual to
Physical conversion?
A. virtual Machine Restore
B. One Time Physical Conversion
C. Convert to Physical
D. Recover My Computer
Answer: D

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NO.4 how do the client computers process backup policies submitted by the Symantec System Recovery
2011 Management Solution?
A. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs totheclient computers beforeeachbackup
B. Client computers pun the backup policies down from Notification server and processthem.
C. Client computers run the backup policies from Notification Server and process them,
D. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs to the client computers every night
Answer: B

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NO.5 Consider the command syntax below
ssr -r <file> -d <destination>
What does the switch -r accomplish in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. searches the recovery point for a specific file
B. restoresthespecified file to a location
C. lists the partition and file types In the recovery point
D. reboots the computer when the restore is complete
Answer: D

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NO.6 A virus attack has corrupted the first sector of a physical hard drive. Fortunately, a recovery point of the
system drive is available to restore with the Symantec Recovery Disk.
Which option must be selected during the restore?
A. Restore master boot record
B. Use Restore Anyware
C. Check for file system errors after recovery
D. Verify recovery point before recovery
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two options are required to enable booting when using the Recover Drive Wizard to restore the
operating system onto a new, empty, hard disk? (Select two)
A. Resize drive
B. Check file system for errors
C. Assign drive letter
D. Restore original disk signature
E. Set drive active
F. Verify recovery point before restore
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 Which software should De installed on the remote client first to be managed by Symantec System
Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution?
A. Symantec SSR software
B. Symantec installation Manager
C. Symantec SSR plug-in
D. Symantec Management (Altiris) Agent
Answer: D

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NO.1 The following output is displayed:
Which SAS program created this output?
A. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables gender * answer / nocol norow nopercent;
run;
B. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables answer * gender / nocol norow nopercent;
run;
C. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables gender * answer / nocol norow nopercent missing;
run;
D.proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables answer * gender / nocol norow nopercent missing;
run;
Answer: A

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NO.2 The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sort data=SASUSER.VISIT out=PSORT;
by code descending date cost;
run;
Which statement is true regarding the submitted program?
A. The descending option applies to the variable CODE.
B. The variable CODE is sorted by ascending order.
C. The PSORT data set is stored in the SASUSER library.
D. The descending option applies to the DATE and COST variables.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the following data set:
Which SAS program produced this output?
A. proc sort data=one(where=(age>50)) out=two;
by subjid;
run;
B. proc sort data=one(if=(age>50)) out=two;
by subjid;
run;
C. proc sort data=one out=two;
where=(age>50)
;
by subjid;
run;
D. proc sort data=one out=two;
if age>50;
by subjid;
run;
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which SAS program will apply the data set label 'Demographics' to the data set named DEMO.?
A. data demo (label='Demographics')
;
set demo;
run;
B. data demo;
set demo (label='Demographics')
;
run;
C. data demo (label 'Demographics')
;
set demo;
run;
D. data demo;
set demo;
label demo= 'Demographics'
;
run;
Answer: A

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NO.5 What information can be found in the SAS Dictionary tables? (Choose two.)
A. datasets contained within a specified library
B. values contained within a specified format
C. variables contained within a specified dataset
D. values contained within a specified variable
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Given the following data set:
Which program was used to prepare the data for this PROC PRINT output?
A. proc sort data=one out=two;
by subjid;
run;
B.proc sort data=one out=two nodupkey;
by subjid;
run;
C. proc sort data=one out=two nodup;
by subjid;
run;
D. proc sort data=one out=two nodupkey;
by subjid trt;
run;
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement correctly adds a label to the data set?
A. DATA two Label="Subjects having duplicate observations"
;
set one;
run;
B. DATA two;
Label="Subjects having duplicate observations"
;
set one;
run;
C. DATA two;
set one;
Label dataset="Subjects having duplicate observations";
run;
D. DATA two(Label="Subjects having duplicate observations")
;
set one;
run;
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given the following data at WORK DEMO:
Which SAS program prints only the first 5 males in this order from the data set?
A. proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5)
;
run;
B. proc print data=WORK.DEMO(obs=5)
;
where Sex='M'
;
run;
C. proc print data=WORK.DEMO(where=(sex='M'))
;
where obs<=5;
run;
D. proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex descending;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5)
;
run;
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 156-510
Exam Name: VPN-1/FireWall-1 Management III
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NO.1 What is true about detecting "blocked connection port scanning"?
A. It requires less memory than general port scanning
B. It is less secure than general port scanning
C. It is more secure than general port scanning
D. It requires more memory than general port scanning
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 When installing FW-1 on a Windows NT platform, what state should IP forwarding be in
for correct FW-1 operation?
A. Enabled
B. Disabled
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a land attack?
A. It causes incomplete TCP connections
B. It involves gaining access by imitating an authorized IP address
C. It involves scanning for ports on an IP address that will allow access
D. It causes a server to send packets to itself
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following should be disabled in a Windows NT platform when installing
FW-1?
A. WINS
B. RPC
C. NetBIOS
D. All of them
E. DHCP relay
Answer: D

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NO.5 By default a Windows NT platform enables both TCP/IP and IPX. What does FW-1 do
with any IPX traffic?
A. Logs it, then drops it
B. Allows it through without being inspected
C. Drops all traffic regardless
D. Inspects the traffic and decide whether to allow it through
Answer: B

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NO.6 How often will SecuRemote check for the availability of a VPN gateway by default?
A. 60 secs
B. 120 secs
C. 30 secs
D. 90 secs
Answer: A

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NO.7 In a load sharing MEP environment accessed by secuRemote.What is true about gateway
selection?
A. SecuRemote will choose the gateway closest to the server
B. SecuRemote will use the first gateway to respond
C. SecuRemote will chose the gateway randomly
D. SecuRemote will prefer its primary gateway if both respond
Answer: C

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NO.8 You can tell if CPMAD is enabled because you see the message
"FireWall-1: Starting cpmad (Malicious Activity Detection)"
whenyou perform a fwstart. True of false?
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one
individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.
Answer: A

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NO.3 NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone.
Answer: A

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NO.4 ________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit,
cable, or component offers to the flow of alternating current.
A unit of measure expressed in ohms.
Answer: Impedance

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NO.5 Which of the following is the standard for "Recommended Practice for Installation
Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for
Stationary Applications"?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Answer: D

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NO.6 Distribution cable is that part of the loop that connects the customer location to the
customer feeder cable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: C

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NO.8 In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements
address the adequate electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of
the installed equipment.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.1 As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com .You are defining a workflow in Automator
that will automate the creation of custom NetBoot service images. Which statement is true?
A. The workflow must use actions available in Automator's System library.
B. Workflow creating NetInstall images can use The "Add User Account" action.
C. The results of one Automator action become the input to the next action in the workflow.
D. The workflow can branch based on the results of an action, causing just one of several defined actions
to be performed next.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer has the MAC address 0020114dbcef,the serial number
ABCD1234XYZ, and the IP address 10.0.0.4, which resolves to myserver.Apple.com. Which file will Mac
OS X Server use to automatically configure the computer?
A. 10.0.4.plist
B. ABCD12.plist
C. myserver.plist
D. 0020114d.plist
Answer: C

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NO.3 As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com. What can you perform with an Apple Remote
Desktop task server?
A. You can check the client information.
B. You can check the local network for ARD client computers.
C. You can arrange tasks for offline client computers.
D. You can turn on powered-down client computers using the Lights Out Management protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.4 As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com.Your company has two Mac OS X Server
v10.5 computers as Software Update servers. You want the Software Update service on one computer to
retrieve available software updates from the other, instead of both computers downloading updates from
Apple's public Software Update servers.What should you do?
A. You should edit the file /etc/swupd/swupd.conf
B. You should edit the file /etc/swupd/swupd.plist
C. You should edit the file /usr/share/swupd/html/index.sucatalog
D. You should edit the file /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate.plist
Answer: B

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NO.5 As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com.Your company has a Mac OS X Server
v10.5 computer. And a metapackage is an installation package that contains or references other
installation packages.
A. TRUE
B. FASLE
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the main difference between a sparse bundle disk image and a sparse disk image?
A. The image data in a sparse bundle disk image is stored in single file, but the image data in a sparse
disk image is stored in multiple files.
B. The image data in a sparse bundle disk image is stored in multiple files, while the image data in a
sparse disk image is stored in a single file.
C. A sparse bundle disk image must be formatted as an HFS volume, while a sparse disk image may use
any format available for a Mac OS X volume.
D. As more files are added to a sparse bundle disk image, its file size increases, unlike a sparse disk
image, whose file size remains static as files are added.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your organization has 100 Intel iMac computers. You are creating a NetInstall image on a Mac OS X
Server v10.5 computer. Which Automator action should you add if you want to specify that the finished
image can be accessed only by a specific subset of your iMac computers?
A. Define Image Source
B. Filter Computer Models
C. Filter Clients by IP Address
D. Customize Package Selection
E. Filter Clients by MAC Address
F. Apply System Configuration Settings
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which statement best defines the term "bundle" as it applies to the Mac OS X v10.5 file system?
A. A folder that is invisible in the Finder
B. A folder of files that the Finder displays as a single file
C. A folder of files that have been gathered and organized for deployment
D. A hierarchical directory structure containing resources geared for a specific purpose
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 9L0-407
Exam Name: Mac Integration Basics 10.7 Exam
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Exam Code: 9L0-064
Exam Name: OS X v10.8 Troubleshooting Exam
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Exam Code: 9L0-402
Exam Name: Support Essentials 10.5
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NO.1 What Windows Server technology provides directory and authentication services.?
A. Exchange Directory
B. LDAP Directory
C. Active Directory
D. Open Directory
Answer: C

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NO.2 From your Mac, you want to access mail, calendars, and contacts served by a Microsoft Exchange
Server.
What is the earliest version of Exchange Server for which Lion provides built-in support for this task?
A. Microsoft Exchange Server 2003
B. Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 with Service Pack 1 Update Rollup 4
C. Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 with Service Pack 2
D. Microsoft Exchange Server 2000 with Service Pack 4
E. Microsoft Exchange Server 2010
Answer: B

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NO.3 HOTSPOT
In the screenshot, click the Icon of the preference pane where you turn on the OS X personal firewall.
Answer:

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Exam Code: 4A0-M01
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Exam Code: 4A0-105
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NO.1 Which of the following functions must a PE router support when participating in a VPLS network?
Choose all that apply.
A.MAC learning
B.Packet replication
C.Proxy ARP
D.Packet forwarding
E.Flood all frames with an unknown destination MAC address to all PE routers associated with that VPLS
Answer: A B D E

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NO.2 Which of the following contributes to VPLS implementation over MPLS?
A.Connecting bridging-capable provider edge routers with a full mesh of MPLS LSP (label switched path)
tunnels
B.Negotiating per-service VC labels using draft-Martini encapsulation
C.Replicating unknown and broadcast traffic in a service domain
D.Enabling MAC learning over tunnel and access ports
E.Using a separate forwarding information base (FIB) per VPLS service
F.All of the above
Answer: F

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NO.3 Which of the following statements relating to VPLS are false?
A.A VPLS is a multipoint Layer 2 service
B.A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain
C.A VPLS on a single node requires a Service Distribution Path
D.With VPLS Service provider can reuse their IP/MPLS infrastructure to offer multiple services
E.The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?
A.It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2
B.The devices cannot communicate based on the configuration in the diagram so there will be no mac
address association
C.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R1
D.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R4
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is false?
A.VPLS is a bridged LAN service
B.VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs
C.VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits
D.CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are
connected
via a bridged LAN
Answer: C

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NO.6 Select the command from the list below that produced the following output.
A.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
B.oam sdp-ping 10 resp-sdp 10
C.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp
D.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
E.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?
A.VPWS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits whereas
VPLS is a bridged LAN service provided to a set of CEs that are members of a L2 VPN
B.Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to communicate with
each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN
C.Unlike VPWS, VPLS provides customers to view the network as an unshared overlay link or circuit
Answer: A

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NO.8 The behavior of VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?
A.A frame should be sent only to the PE that connects to the target site of the frame whenever possible
B.A frame should be flooded as little as possible
C.Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address
D.Only (a) and (b) are true
E.All of the above
Answer: E

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Exam Code: HP2-T19
Exam Name: HP (HP BladeSystem Solutions [2010])
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Total Q&A: 154 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 How does a c7000 enclosure retain air handling integrity when a server blade is removed?
A. The enclosure design uses blank panels to prevent air loss.
B. A blanking panel causes the air flow to reverse, allowing warmer air to escape.
C. The enclosure uses a self-closing door to prevent air loss.
D. The fans increase in revolutions per minute to increase air volume.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which connectivity type is supported to access Systems Management Architecture for the Server
Hardware (SMASH) Command Line Protocol? (Select three.)
A. serial
B. ftp
C. rcp
D. telnet
E. ssl
F. ssh
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.3 What happens when you turn the enclosure UID to "On" on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure?
A. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
B. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
C. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
D. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which interconnect can be used with the Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) capability of the new G7
Series of c-Class blades?
A. HP 1/10Gb-F Virtual Connect Ethernet
B. HP Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet
C. Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D. HP ProCurve 6120G/XG interconnect
E. HP Virtual Connect FC Module
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of c3000 enclosures that can be installed in a 42U rack?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
Place the preventive measure steps in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.7 Which feature of the BL465c G7 allows the server to accommodate 16 DIMM slots and retain the
half-height form factor?
A. PCIe Gen 2 x8 mezzanine expansion slots
B. AMD SR5690/SP5100 chipset
C. Hot Plug Drive Drawer
D. Smart Array P410i Controller with 1GB FBWC
Answer: B

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NO.8 When should a performance baseline be captured?
A. after the initial installation of the equipment, during normal daily operation
B. after the initial installation of the equipment, during peak operating conditions
C. before and after each step of the initial installation of the equipment
D. three times a day during the first week following the initial installation of the equipment
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which HP BladeSystem component is used for power allocation and control for all blades and
interconnects?
A. Rack and Power Manager
B. Power Manager
C. Onboard Administrator
D. Insight Display
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which HP c-Class server blades take up two c3000 enclosure server bays? (Select two.)
A. BL860c
B. BL870c
C. BL685 G7
D. BL490 G6
E. BL2x220c G6
Answer: A, B

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NO.11 DRAG DROP
Place each server blade on its recommended application type.
Answer:

NO.12 HOTSPOT
Click on the component that provides remote enclosure management in c-Class enclosures.
Answer:

NO.13 Which processor type is used with the HP BL460c G6 Server Blade?
A. Dual-Core Intel Itanium Processor
B. Intel Xeon Processor
C. HP PA-RISC FSB, double data rate
D. AMD Opteron processor
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which full-height device bays are in Zone 3 of a c7000 enclosure?
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 5 and 6
D. 7 and 8
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which HP blade comes with a license for Microsoft Cluster Server (MSCS)?
A. BL490c
B. BL870c
C. X3800sb
D. xw2x220c
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the maximum number of SB1760c Tape Blades that can be installed in a c7000 blade
enclosure?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: B

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NO.17 HOTSPOT
Click on the SB600c All-in-One Storage Blade in the graphic.
Answer:

NO.18 Which utilities can be used to scan for malware on a Windows server? (Choose two.)
A. Snort
B. Ad-Aware
C. Postfix
D. Microsoft Network Monitor
E. Spybot
Answer: B, E

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NO.19 Which feature is supported by the zx2 chipset in the Integrity BL860c?
A. hot spare and hot-plug of memory DIMMs
B. up to 512GB of memory (not fully buffered DIMMs)
C. memory DIMM error correction (chip sparing)
D. 512-bit, 800MHz (800 MT/s, 1600MHz data rate) memory bus
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is needed to connect a Windows-based laptop to the c7000 or c3000 enclosure service port and
successfully communicate with the Onboard Administrator?
A. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a null modem cable
B. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a standard CAT5 patch cable
C. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a CAT5 crossover
cable
D. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a standard CAT5
patch cable
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-S27
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem Solutions, Rev 10.31)
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Total Q&A: 243 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which power management settings can be configured for a c7000 enclosure? (Select three.)
A.Not Redundant
B.Active / Standby
C.AC Redundant
D.Power Supply Redundant
E.UPS protected
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which function in the HP P4000 Storage Solution provides online scalability within volumes and across
pools?
A.SAN/IQ Storage Clustering
B.SAN/IQ Multi-Site SAN
C.Automatic Data Center Mirroring
D.Centralized Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.3 A system administrator wants to access HP SIM via a browser.Which URL should be typed into the
browser address bar to access the HP SIM login page?
A.http://<MachineName>:2301
B.http://<MachineName>:50000
C.https://<MachineName>:2381
D.https://<MachineName>:50000
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which interconnect module provides 16 uplink ports and 16 downlink ports, all capable of supporting
40Gbps bandwidth?
A.HP BLc 4X QDR IB Switch for HP BladeSystem c-Class
B.Cisco Catalyst Blade Switch 3120G/X for HP BladeSystem c-Class
C.HP StorageWorks 3Gb SAS BL Switch for HP BladeSystem c-Class
D.HP ProCurve 6120XG for HP BladeSystem c-Class
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are two results of defining a shared uplink set when using Virtual Connect Manager network setup
wizard? (Select two.)
A.enables multiple ports to be included to support port aggregation and link failover with a consistent set
of VLAN tags
B.enables multiple external Virtual Connect modules to communicate through any external port without
the use of stacking cables
C.identifies Virtual Connect Ethernet module uplinks that carry multiple networks over the same cable
D.defines an optimized private communications path for server blades installed in non-adjacent enclosure
bays
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 On a server running HP Data Protector Express the customer wants to connect a c-Class tape
blade.Which HP resource is used to install the required driver for the SC44Ge SAS HBA?
A.HP Library & Tape Tools
B.HP Software Update Manager
C.HP StorageWorks Tape CD-ROM
D.HP Version Control Manager
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which VMware product enables IT organizations to provide self-service provisioning and management
capabilities to internal teams?
A.VMware Site Recovery Manager
B.VMware Lab Manager
C.VMware View
D.VMware vCenter
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer decides to use an MSA2000sa as additional storage for the storage blades in their
enclosure.Which components are required as part of the enclosure solution to enable this functionality?
(Select two.)
A.blades with embedded P400 Controllers
B.blades with P700 Controller mezzanine cards
C.an HP StorageWorks 3Gb SAS BL Switch
D.an HP InfiniBand Switch
E.an HP StorageWorks 600 Modular Disk System
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer asks about the blue question mark next to Version Control, which is shown in the exhibit.What
does the blue question mark indicate?
A.HP Version Control is not up to date.
B.HP Version Control Agent is not configured.
C.HP SIM is running in third-party compatibility mode.
D.HP SIM events need to be cleared.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which type of mezzanine cards are supported by the BL860c? (Select two.)
A.Type 1
B.Type 2
C.Type 3
D.Type 4
E.Type 5
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 An incorrect IP address has been configured on your blade switch.How do you correct this problem?
A.Update your firmware on the Onboard Administrator.
B.Run erase from SmartStart using Virtual Media.
C.Remove and then replace the blade switch in the enclosure.
D.Use the Command Line Interface through the Onboard Administrator.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which resource can be used to determine total cooling requirements for a proposed HP BladeSystem
solution?
A.Insight Display
B.Onboard Administrator
C.Product Bulletin
D.BladeSystem Power Sizing Tool
E.Performance Quick Reference Tool
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which HP Care Pack Service is categorized as High Availability?
A.Proactive Select
B.Proactive 24
C.Support Plus 24
D.Critical Service
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which key benefits are provided by HP UPS units? (Select three.)
A.protection from power spikes
B.increased power efficiency
C.power conversion to DC output
D.reduced noise and heat
E.increased uptime
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.15 Which features have been enhanced in the 6.0 release of HP SIM? (Select two.)
A.virus detection
B.Onboard Administrator integration
C.License Manager
D.storage essentials
E.reporting
Answer: C,E

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NO.16 When using a c7000 enclosure with six BL680c Server Blades installed, what is the maximum number
of StorageWorks SB1760c Tape Blades that can be installed?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.6
E.8
Answer: B

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NO.17 What should be identified as part of a troubleshooting action plan?
A.opportunities for additional products and services
B.specific root causes for the specified mode of failure
C.current OS and virtualization solutions supported by HP
D.scalability requirements and planned growth
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are working on a rack containing three c7000 enclosures.What provides you with the most
information about enclosure status?
A.Insight Display
B.Integrated Management Log
C.HP System Management Homepage
D.Integrated Lights Out Log
Answer: A

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NO.19 What may be needed to connect a SB40c with a full-height server?
A.PCI Expansion Blade
B.FC mezzanine card
C.Flex10 Virtual Connect card
D.PCI Express mezzanine pass-thru card
Answer: D

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NO.20 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.You want to configure HP SIM to periodically compare the configuration of managed
nodes.Place the recommended steps for accomplishing this in the correct order.
Answer:

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