2014年5月29日星期四

HP0-J14 Braindumps, HP0-A21 Real Exams, HP3-C30 Practice Exam

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Exam Code: HP0-J14
Exam Name: HP StorageWorks ASE 2008 Delta Exam
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Exam Code: HP0-A21
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Exam Code: HP3-C30
Exam Name: HP LaserJet Fundamentals - Refresh
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NO.1 Which multi-path drivers are included in the MPIO driver package? (Select three.)
A. bus driver
B. port filter driver
C. Secure Path driver
D. system state driver
E. disk driver replacement
F. matrix storage manager driver
Answer: ABE

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NO.2 Which resource can you use to identify supported switch and HBA firmware releases in an MSA2012fc
storage environment?
A. MSA2012fc website
B. MSA2012fc Streams
C. MSA2012fc User Guide
D. MSA2012fc Quick Specs
E. MSA2012fc Best Practices
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: ACE

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NO.4 When does the data become available to the application during the MSA2000 snapshot rollback
process?
A. immediately
B. after a restart of the application
C. when the rollback process has completed
D. while the rollback process completes in the background
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of users that can be logged into an MSA2012 (fc or i) controller at any
one time?
A. 3 monitor and 1 manage
B. 3 monitor and 2 manage
C. 5 monitor and 1 manage
D. 5 monitor and 2 manage
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains pre-allocated reserve space for snapshot data?
A. snap pool
B. rollback pool
C. target volume
D. master volume
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the impact of dequarantining a virtual disk if not enough of its drives are available to maintain
the selected RAID level?
A. The virtual disk RAID level is reduced.
B. The virtual disk stays in quarantine until disks are added.
C. The virtual disk goes critical and the sparing routine is called.
D. The virtual disk goes offline and its data cannot be recovered.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are attempting to restore a saved configuration file. You have selected Manage > Utilities >
Configuration Utilities > Restore Config File inside the HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management
Utility. What do you select next?
A. Next
B. Master Controller
C. IP Address option
D. previously saved configuration file
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z12
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Exam Code: HP2-B68
Exam Name: HP AC Integration and Support Technical-Job Accounting
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NO.1 Which HP A Series switches provide Layer 2 functionality and a Web browser interface but no CLI?
A. HP A5800 Series switches
B. HP NJ2000GIntelliJack switches
C. HP A3600-E1 Series switches
D. HP A3100 Series switches
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are installing an HP A Series switch that requires a backup power supply as well as extra power for
Power over Ethernet (PoE) devices. Which device should you connect to this switch?
A. RPS 1200 A
B. RPS 1000 A3
C. RPS 800 A
D. RPS500 A3
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which area of the network is considered the backbone?
A. data center
B. core
C. distribution layer
D. LAN access layer
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which switch is specifically designed for networks that require basic connectivity and have little or no IT
support?
A. fixed-port switch
B. light Layer 3 switch
C. modular switch
D. unmanaged switch
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have been sent to a customer site to check an HP E8212 zlswitch. When you arrive, you notice
that the Fault and Fan Status LEDs are flashing. What is the most likely cause of this LED behavior?
A. The cooling fan is no longer functional
B. The switch is brand new and needs to have the most current firmware installed.
C. The external power supply has failed, causing the fan to malfunction.
D. The switch has failed its self-test
Answer: C

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NO.6 The exhibit shows the Power and seven-segment LEDs of an HP A Series switch. What is the switch's
status?
Exhibit:
A. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster.
B. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster, but its attempt to join the cluster has failed.
C. The switch has failed the power on self test (POST) with ID 8.
D. Port number 8 has failed the switch's power on self test (POST).
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which device forwards network traffic based only on Layer 2 information?
A. router
B. switch
C. hub
D. firewall
Answer: C

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NO.8 Several HP A Series switches are distinguished by a dual-personality (or combo) port. What is an
accurate description of this port?
A. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or fiber optic cable
B. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or a small form-factor pluggable (SFP) transceiver
C. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Both can be used simultaneously.
D. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Only one can be used at a time.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-144
Exam Name: ProCurve Secure WAN
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Exam Code: HP2-Z19
Exam Name: Implementing HP Network Security Solutions
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NO.1 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I: E5406 ( v l a-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit below.
You have configured IP helper addresses for VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 on this HP E5406 zl switch. However,
users in these VLANs report that their computers are not receiving DHCP addresses. Which feature must
be enabled to address this problem?
A. DNS
B. DHCP relay
C. IP routing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B

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6.Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.5 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit below.
What is indicated by this entry in the IP route table of an HP E8212 zl switch?
A. The switch has been configured with an ACL that blocks communications with the loopback interfaces.
B. The switch does not permit communications with any loopback interface.
C. Traffic to this interface is rejected with the single exception of traffic to the host address of the switch ¯ s
loopback interface (127.0.0.1/ 32).
D. A loopback interface is configured with 127.0.0.0.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which E-Series CLI commands enable you to view all show commands available in the current context?
(Select two.)
A. Switch# show /?
B. Switch# show all
C. Switch# show help
D. Switch# show ?
E. Switch# show <tab>
F. Switch# help show
Answer: D,E

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Exam Code: HH0-260
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Exam Code: HH0-450
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NO.1 You are adding two more volumes into each node of a HCP 500 DL. The storage administrator
informs you that all SAN volumes have been created, zoned and presented to the HCP.
Which LUN number presented to the HCP will cause a problem.?
A. 5
B. 128
C. 130
D. 131
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three replication types are supported by HCP? (Choose three.)
A. chain
B. many-to-one
C. one-to-many
D. bidirectional
E. link level
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 You are establishing a replication link between two HCP platforms. You set the performance
level as
part of the configuration options. What does this setting indicate?
A. the server priority rate for nodes associated with that replication link
B. the amount of bandwidth made available for replication on the link
C. the number of concurrent replication operations that can occur on each node
D. the data transfer rate associated with each tenant namespace
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has an existing HCP 500 consisting of four storages nodes. They have just
purchased an additional HCP 500 and you are informed that you will be performing the replication
setup.
What is the requirement prior to setting up replication?
A. trusted replication server certificates
B. replication link
C. outbound link name
D. inbound link name
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are configuring a HCP 500 solution with AMS 2100 storage. You choose to configure the
storage devices first in the list of tasks associated with this process.
What is the reason for sequencing the tasks in this way?
A. The HCP software must first be installed on the AMS 2100 for access.
B. Formatting the storage containers will take a considerable amount of time.
C. You must have the data LUNs established before you can install the core OS.
D. The HCP command LUN must be established on the AMS 2100.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How should the RAID group(s) and logical volume(s) be configured on a HCP 300 node?
A. three RAID groups each with three logical volumes
B. three RAID groups each with a single logical volume
C. a single RAID group with a single logical volume
D. a single RAID group with three logical volumes
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer wants to ingest around 1 million files residing in several Windows 2003 and
RedHat Linux servers into three newly created HCP tenants and namespaces.
Which two procedures do you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from HCP client tools for Linux.
B. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from Linux server.
C. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from HCP client tools for Windows.
D. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from Windows server.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which three statements are true about encryption on a HCP? (Choose three.)
A. Once enabled, encryption cannot be disabled.
B. The encryption key is accessible through the system management console.
C. Encryption can only be enabled at the time of installation.
D. The encryption key must be written down and given to the customer.
E. The encryption key is displayed several times during the installation process.
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: GB0-280
Exam Name: Constructing Enterprise-level Routing Networks
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Exam Code: GB0-183
Exam Name: Huawei-3Com Certified Network Engineer
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NO.1 STP
A. STP
IEEE 802.1D
B. STP
C.
STP
BPDU
STP
D. STP
UPS
ABCD

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NO.2 A. IPX
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IP
BC

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NO.3 OSPF
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
ABCDE

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NO.4 TFTP
A. TCP 68
B. UDP 68
C. TCP 69
D. UDP 69
D

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NO.5 A. IP
1
IP
B. IP
0
IP
C. IP
127
IP
D. IP
1
IP
C

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NO.6 LAN
A.
B.
C.
D. FDDI
ABCD

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NO.7 RIP
520
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. PPP
B

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NO.8 A.
B.
C.
D.
D

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Exam Code: GE0-703
Exam Name: GCP7 - Consultant, Voice Enterprise Edition
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NO.1 A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice
Application CANNOT include __________.
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the <Application Name>.XML file
Answer: D

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NO.2 When the parameter localconfig is set equal to 1 (localconfig = 1) in GVP.ini, the WatchDog service
will __________.
A. not read the local GVP.ini file, using the latest configuration contained in the LDAP database for the
VCS/IPCS parameter settings
B. read the local GVP.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
C. read the local watchdog.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
D. read the local EMPS.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the __________.
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client
C. Call Flow Assistant
D. WatchDog
Answer: D

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NO.4 Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route
Number is used when __________.
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to
find an agent number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes __________ calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM
D. EMPS
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: A

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2014年5月28日星期三

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Exam Code: RCDD
Exam Name: Registered Communications Distribution Designer
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NO.1 Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection
Systems?
A. NFPA-780
B. NFPA-70
C. NFPA-72
D. NFPA-75
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is the standard for "Recommended Practice for Installation
Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for
Stationary Applications"?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Answer: D

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NO.4 ANSI/TIA/EIA-758 is the standard for which of the following?
A. Customer-Owned Outside Plant Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
B. Technical Specifications for 100 Ohm Screened Twisted Pair Cabling.
C. Propagation Delay and Delay Skew Specifications for 100-Ohm 4-Pair Cable.
D. Residential Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Answer: A

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NO.6 ________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit,
cable, or component offers to the flow of alternating current.
A unit of measure expressed in ohms.
Answer: Impedance

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NO.7 The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the
presence of an electromagnetic disturbance is called what?
A. Electromagnetic immunity.
B. Electromagnetic compatibility.
C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electromagnetic disturbance.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9L0-806
Exam Name: iWork Level One
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NO.1 You try to set up an access control list (ACL) for several folders on your Xsan volume, but you are
unable to do so. What is MOST LIKELY preventing you from completing this task?
A. ACLs have not been enabled for your Xsan volume.
B. Your client is not bound to the Open Directory master.
C. Your controller is not bound to the Open Directory master.
D. Your Xsan volume has not been mounted on the primary metadata controller.
Answer:A

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NO.2 You are creating an Xsan volume in Xsan Admin. Below is a list of steps required to accomplish this
task. In what order should you perform these steps?
A. label LUNs
B. create LUNs
C. create volumes
D. create storage pools
E. add LUNs to storage pools
A. BACDE
B. BADEC
C. CBADE
D. CDBAE
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which method of increasing the storage capacity of a SAN does NOT require that a volume be
unmounted and stopped?
A. add LUNs
B. add volumes
C. add storage pools
D. reduce block allocation size
Answer: B

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NO.4 Setting up a separate storage pool to store both metadata and journal data can ________.
A. complicate user quota configuration
B. improve I/O throughput for user data
C. increase free disk space on the primary metadata controller
D. cause data loss due to multiple files having the same address
Answer: B

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NO.5 You want to use different block allocation sizes for two applications. To do so, you must set up a
________ for each application.
A. LUN
B. volume
C. storage pool
D. metadata controller
Answer: B

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NO.6 In Xsan, you can set up an affinity between a folder and a ________.
A. volume
B. hard disk
C. storage pool
D. metadata controller
Answer: C

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NO.7 Fibre Channel switched fabrics use ____-bit addresses.
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.8 You try to save a file from an Xsan client to an Xsan volume, but receive an alert message that
indicates error -1425 has occurred. What is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Xsan volume is busy.
B. Saving the file would cause you to exceed your hard quota.
C. Another user is saving changes simultaneously to the same file on the Xsan volume.
D. You are trying to save the file to a folder or volume where you do not have write permissions.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 9L0-010
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NO.1 A customer asks about RAM speed requirements to upgrade his Mac. To which Apple support site
resource should you refer this customer?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Specifications
D. Technician Guide
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid precaution you should take while working inside an iMac (27-inch, Mid
2010) system that is plugged into AC power but has not yet been powered on?
A. Do not turn the unit upside-down.
B. Avoid putting your fingers near the fans.
C. Make sure you are NOT wearing a grounded ESD wrist strap.
D. Do not touch the processor heat sink because it could burn your fingers.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are preparing to replace faulty RAM inside a Mac mini (Mid 2010). What should be used to open the
bottom cover?
A. Putty knife
B. Philips #00 screwdriver
C. Mac mini (Mid 2010) Logic Board Removal Tool
D. Your hands, no tools are required for this procedure
Answer: D

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NO.4 According to Apple Technician Guides, what should be completed before performing any take-apart
steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Disconnect and reconnect all internal cables.
B. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is a valid precaution you should take when you begin working inside a MacBook
Pro (13-inch, Mid 2010)?
A. Reset the SMC.
B. Remove the hard drive.
C. Disconnect the optical drive.
D. Disconnect the main battery.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What component of a Mac mini (Early 2009) logic board requires use of an anti-static foam support to
avoid damage?
A. EMI clips
B. Video card
C. Large heat sink
D. Battery connector
Answer: A

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NO.7 You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer's Mac. Which one of the
following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User's manual
D. Apple support articles
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NO.8 Which of the following measurements is an example of an appropriate use of a multimeter when
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A. Measure logic board battery voltage.
B. Measure high voltage going to a CRT.
C. Measure AC current going to an optical drive.
D. Measure digital signals on the main processor.
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is an SLA? (Choose two)
A. An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter
across a provider's network.
B. An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer
traffic across the provider's network.
C. An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their
traffic over others as desired.
D. An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement
within the provider's network.
E. An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing
them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the
Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. The EXP bits in the MPLS header.
B. The packet's source and destination IP addresses.
C. The packet's DSCP bits.
D. The dot1p bits in the frame header.
E. The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Click the exhibit button below.
Based on the configuration shown below, name the forwarding class to be associated with a TCP packet
encapsulated inside an Ethernet frame that arrives on SAP 1/1/5 with the following characteristics:
Destination IP address = 120.110.1.1
TCP port number = 23
DSCP value = nc1
Dot1pvalue = 3
A. H2
B. NC
C. L2
D. EF
E. H1
F. BE
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?
A. 010011
B. 100010
C. 010001
D. 001100
E. 010010
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)
A. DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.
B. DSCP is a 6-bit field.
C. DSCP specifies eight different priorities.
D. DSCP specifies four precedence levels.
E. DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header
F. DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant
(first) bits define precedence.
A. 8, 6, 3
B. 8, 8, 6
C. 16, 8, 4
D. 8, 6, 4
E. 24, 16, 8
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which timing technique can deliver time of day and phase synchronization information to the base
station without concern for Packet Delay Variation (PDV)?
A. Building Integrated Timing Supply (BITS)
B. Global Positioning System (GPS)
C. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
D. IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following:
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots.
The command result illustrates which circuit status?
A. The E1 channel group is administratively turned down
B. The DS1 circuit physical link is operationally down
C. The IMA bundle has no operational member links
D. The associated Layer 3 interface is operationallydown
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is a characteristic of the IEEE 802.3 Slow Protocol?
A. There are a maximum of 10 frames transmitted per second
B. There are a maximum of 20 slow protocol subtypes per interface
C. The maximum slow protocol frame size is 64 bytes
D. The slow protocol header carries the clock quality level
Answer: A

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NO.4 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which payload type set in a SDH-framed OC-12 port creates individual E1
containers?
A. Virtual Tributary (VT) 1.5
B. VT2
C. Virtual Container (VC)-11
D. VC-12
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement best describes adaptive timing techniques?
A. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from time stamped packets
B. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from the arriving packet rate
C. Adaptive timing only supports frequency synchronization
D. Adaptive timing only operates on point-to-point links
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which messages, periodically sent between an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 master
and slave, serve as hellos to help the slave choose the best available master?
A. Announce
B. Announce_grant
C. Sync
D. Delay_response
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement correctly describes the Point-to-Point (PPP) Multilink Protocol (MP) negotiation
process?
A. At least one link must complete Link Control Protocol (LCP) negotiations before the bundle can
initialize
B. The endpoints indicate their desire to implement MP in the link Network Control Protocol (NCP) phase
C. The bundle must complete LCP negotiations before it can enter the NCP negotiation phase
D. Internet Protocol-Control Protocol (IPCP) negotiations must succeed for the bundle links to initialize
Answer: A

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NO.8 When researching carrier-class Ethernet standards to support the mobile backhaul Ethernet transport,
which standards body would you consult?
A. IEEE
B. MEF
C. ITU-T
D. NGMN
Answer: B

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NO.1 According to ISTQB syllabus, systems of systems;
I. Contain interconnected hardware, software applications and communications.
II. Include big bang merging of independent collaborating systems to avoid creating the
entire system from scratch.
III. Can be less reliable than individual systems
IV. Characteristics include; long duration of projects, version management and regression
tests at systems of systems level.
A. I, II and IV are true.
B. I, II are true and III is false.
C. I, III, and IV are true, II is false.
D. II,III and IV are true, I is false.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You and two junior testers have been assigned to a new project qualification by your manager.
Development of the code started two weeks ago and now you are invited to attend a code review
meeting by development manager. Meeting agenda is to cover following items.
# Verify code compliance to coding standards
# Verify comment usage frequency
# Review number of function calls
# Review logical decision points in the application
What is the purpose of this meeting?
A. Perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early.
B. Explain the testers how the program should work.
C. Get an agreement to release the partially completed software to the testing department.
D. Explain the complexity of the code.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Integrated Solutions Inc. is a software testing company with 20 testers. One of their clients
provided a software release and requested to test the software within 2 weeks.
The client did not provide any specifications of the software or any documentation.
However, Integrated Solutions Inc. testers have tested similar releases from the same client in the
past. As a Senior Software Tester, what is your best approach?
A. Test the product using "Defect and Experienced Based" techniques like error guessing,
exploratory and attacks.
B. Request for more time.
C. Explain the client why you cannot test the software.
D. Test only performance of the software.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Software Testers in a software development company installed the new release on test
systems and started the testing phase.
Testers verified the new functionality, performed necessary security testing and completed planned
regression tests.
During the last week of testing, testers noticed that the memory utilization was more than 95% on
two of the test
servers (out of 4 servers). This behavior was not observed during the first weeks of the testing phase.
As a test analyst, what would you do?
A. Ignore the problem because other two servers are okay (memory utilization is normal)
B. Report the problem to the developer immediately and create a defect report because it could be
a problem related to memory leak.
C. Reboot the system so that memory utilization will come back to normal. Not report it as a
problem.
D. Create a defect report and reboot the system to correct the memory problem.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are false?
I. Test execution starts when the system entry criteria are met (or waived) and test
execution ends when exit criteria are met.
II. System test environment creation might start during system design in V-model III.
Long term prospects needs to be considered when selecting test process or tools. IV.
Daily/weekly scrum meetings are part of agile testing method.
A. I and II and false.
B. II, III and IV are false
C. I, II, III are false
D. None of them are false
Answer: D

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NO.6 Select the correct statement related to test techniques;
I. Software program should be running to perform dynamic analysis
II. Software program should be running to perform static analysis
III. Control flow analysis is part of dynamic analysis
IV. Data flow analysis is part of static analysis
A. I, II true. III, IV false
B. I, III true. II, IV false
C. I, IV true. II, III false
D. I true. II, III, IV false
Answer: C

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NO.7 Select the correct statement;
A. Testing processes are interconnected and related to activities like requirements
engineering, software development, etc.
B. Testing tasks cannot be concurrent.
C. Requirements engineering and software testing are two isolated activities.
D. Testing activities / processes do not have to be aligned to the chosen software
development lifecycle model.
Answer: A

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2014年5月27日星期二

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NO.1 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from
running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from
the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise
infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal
Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.5 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server
take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server
(FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose
four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.7 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central
Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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