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Exam Code: HP2-K35
Exam Name: Support and Service HP StoreOnce Solutions
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Exam Code: HP0-M55
Exam Name: ArcSight ESM Administrator
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Exam Code: HP0-S23
Exam Name: Design and Implementation of HP Systems Insight Manager v5.3
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NO.1 What must be done first to restore the database from an online backup?
A. run the Oracle restore wizard
B. ensure that the archived redo logs are located in the archive log destination
C. bring the affected tablespaces online
D. reinstall the Oracle installation
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which key pair types are valid selections when using the Manager Setup Wizard to create an SSL key
pair? (Select two.)
A. non-expiring SSL key pair
B. self-signed key pair
C. demo key pair
D. random generator key pair
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 What is a trust store (sometimes called a key store)?
A. the preferred source for obtaining signed certificates
B. a list of trusted Certificate Authorities
C. the location of a system's private keys
D. the set of backup files containing SSL information
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which ArcSight Foundation should you use to identify traffic and bandwidth usage?
A. Configuration Monitoring
B. Intrusion Monitoring
C. ArcSight Administration
D. Network Monitoring
Answer: D

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NO.5 During Connector install, which statement is true about the ArcSight Manager's host name or IP
address?
A. It must match the host name or IP address in the ArcSight Manager's SSL certificate.
B. The host name or IP address is used as an encryption key.
C. It can be any legitimate host name or IP address.
D. It must contain a combination of alpha-numeric characters.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are ArcSight Foundations?
A. user groups organized to explore and share ideas for extending ArcSight ESM capabilities
B. coordinated resources that provide monitoring, analysis, and reporting capabilities
C. categories of resources used for monitoring ArcSight system health and status
D. packages that are installed but cannot be modified
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which ArcSight Foundation should you use to identify and analyze unexpected modifications to
systems, devices, or applications?
A. Configuration Monitoring
B. Intrusion Monitoring
C. ArcSight Administration
D. Network Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.8 What happens when a Connector upgrade that was initiated from within the ArcSight Console fails.?
A. The Connector automatically rolls back to the previously working version.
B. The Connector does not respond to the failed upgrade.
C. The Connector reports to the Manager that the upgrade failed and then died.
D. The Connector automatically attempts the upgrade again.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JK0-018
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ E2C (2011 Edition)
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Exam Code: 220-702
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)
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Exam Code: CD0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA CDIA+ Certification Exam
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NO.1 A company needs to store 500 two-page documents every day. Each document is 50 KB. What
storage capacity is required for one month, assuming 21.5 days per month?
A. 525 MB
B. 651 MB
C. 1.05 GB
D. 5.25 GB
Answer: A

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NO.2 The plans to implement a new document management solution and move from optical
storage to RAID5 storage. When they convert the document images from the optical platters to
RAID5, how many pages will there be from a jukebox with ten 2.6GB platters, each of which 90% is
full, assuming that average image size is 50KB?
A. 468,000 pages
B. 520,000 pages
C. 4,680,000 pages
D. 5,200,000 pages
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Higher expense
B. Lower quality
C. Small file size
D. Compatibility issues
Answer: A

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NO.4 The needs to send scanned forms to various remote offices. They receive and scan 100 forms
a day.
Approximately how long would it take to transmit 100 50KB images using a 56Kbps modem
assuming a 10% throughput reduction for overhead?
A. 8 minutes
B. 13 minutes
C. 18 minutes
D. 26 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.5 In a Request For Proposal (RFP) for an Electronic Document Management (EDM) solution, the
customer is requiring a total cost for all goods and services. This model is known as:
A. fixed price.
B. time and materials.
C. time and materials with travel expenses.
D. mixed mode pricing.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The processes a very large number of invoices daily that are of non-standard sized and
different
thickness. Which of the following is the most important criterion for selecting a scanner for me ?
A. ADF
B. Lamps
C. High Speed
D. Despeckling
Answer: A

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NO.7 An end-user wants a user interface that is easy to personalize, will allow for new applications
to be added, and will allow for inter-application communication. Which of the following interfaces
will meet these requirements?
A. A portal
B. A browser
C. A customer Windows client
D. A Java client written with JavaServer Pages (JSP)
Answer: A

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NO.8 A change control plan is concerned with all of the following EXCEPT:
A. responding to the factors that create scope change.
B. determining that a scope change has occurred.
C. documenting baseline project plan assumptions.
D. managing the actual modifications when and if any occur.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: BI0-112
Exam Name: Cognos 8 BI Author v2
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NO.1 In Report Studio, if an author adds a prompt to a report page containing a list, how can the
author prevent an automatically generated prompt from appearing when the report runs?
A.Add a Static Choice
B.Specify a Default Selection
C.Set the Auto-Submit property to Yes
D.Change the Required property to No
Answer:B

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NO.2 In Report Studio, when should authors use a Generated Prompt?
A.They only want the user to be able to choose one option.
B.They are unsure of the most appropriate prompt type to choose.
C.They want to use the same prompt on a prompt page and a report page.
D.They want the options to be based on selections made in another prompt.
Answer:B

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NO.3 In Report Studio, why would an author create Static Choices for a prompt?
A.To provide prompt options that are not found in the data source.
B.So that the prompt appears with an option selected by default.
C.To provide default values to satisfy a parameter so a prompt page will not appear.
D.So that the items that appear in the prompt depend on items selected in another prompt.
Answer:A

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NO.4 An author wants to create a filter on this report to only show Product line totals larger than 1
billion. What calculation is used to create this filter?
A.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue] for Product line)>1000000000 Application = After auto aggregation
B.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue])>1000000000 Scope = Product line
C.Summary filter as: [Revenue]>1000000000 Scope = Product line
D.Summary filter as: ([Revenue] for Product line>1000000000) Application = After auto aggregation
Answer:C

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NO.5 In Report Studio, based on the crosstab below, which of the following is true?
A.Sales territory is a parent to Quantity and Revenue.
B.Quantity and Revenue have a parent-child relationship.
C.Order method is a peer of Retailer type.
D.Sales territory is a peer of Order method.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 1D0-541
Exam Name: CIW v5 Database Design Specialist
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Exam Code: 1D0-51B
Exam Name: CIW v5 Foundations SDF Module
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Exam Code: 1D0-520
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NO.1 Consider the Information Engineering diagram in the exhibit showing a conceptual data model of the
relations BUILDING and RESIDENT. What is the next step in refining the data model?
A.Create intermediate entities.
B.Create a logical data model.
C.Resolve many-to-many relationahips.
D.Identify and resolve complex relationships.
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes the information contained in the data dictionary (or system
catalog)?
A.Metadata
B.Data model
C.Table data
D.Metafile
Answer:A

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NO.3 Consider the following relations shown in the exhibit. Which of the following SQL statements would
return the Customers2 relation from the Customers relation?
A.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate <= 80 OR Satisfaction_Rate >= 90;
B.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate IN (80 AND 90);
C.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate >= 80 AND Satisfaction_Rate <= 89;
D.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate BETWEEN (80, 90);
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which pair of relational algebraic operations requires union compatibility?
A.Projection and Cartesian product
B.Selection and projection
C.Intersection and difference
D.Cartesian product and intersection
Answer:C

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NO.5 Your enterprise is involved in planning a database project. The exhibit shows the result of one phase of
the database design life cycle. Which term best describes the diagram shown in the exhibit?
A.Information Engineering (IE) data model
B.Corporate data model
C.Database requirements model
D.Entity Relation Data (ERD) model
Answer:B

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NO.6 Which characteristic is an advantage of a database management system?
A.Data files are owned and maintained by the users.
B.Database administration is simplified.
C.A standard method can be used to access the database.
D.Data is decentralized.
Answer:C

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NO.7 Consider the following SQL statement and the Orders relation shown in the exhibit: What is the output
of this SQL statement? Answer & Explanation Correct Answer C Explanations No more information
available
Answer:

NO.8 What is the highest normal form of the relation(s) shown in the exhibit?
A.Second normal form
B.First normal form
C.Boyce-Codd normal form
D.Third normal form
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-370
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Exam Code: 1Y0-A09
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix XenServer 5.0
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NO.1 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has been instructed to deploy an internal application to mobile
users with iPads. The application will be deployed from XenMobile Device Manager.
Which action should the engineer take first to upload the application?
A. Browse to the .ipa file in the 'Applications' tab.
B. Browse to the .apk file in the 'Applications' tab.
C. Browse to the .mdx file in the 'Applications' tab.
D. Specify the App store URL of the application in the 'Applications' tab.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Scenario: XenMobile has been selected as the new mobility solution for an organization. The
organization currently has a Citrix XenApp environment with remote access provided through
NetScaler ICA Proxy. A Citrix Engineer needs to redesign the email access solution for remote users
and the organization requires that the new solution integrate with the native iOS Mail.
Which component should be implemented to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. WorxMail
B. Secure Mobile Gateway
C. XenMobile Mail Manager
D. XenMobile NetScaler Connector
Answer: D

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NO.3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer must provide remote users with access to their corporate e-mail
from their mobile devices.
The engineer must ensure remote users' mobile devices meet the following requirements:
-
Mobile devices require a PIN for corporate email.
-
Mobile devices cannot be jailbroken.
-
Mobile devices must be enrolled to XenMobile Device Manager.
-Only iOS devices will have access to corporate email.
Which component should the engineer include in the solution to enforce the requirements outlined
in the scenario?
A. WorxMail
B. App Controller
C. TouchDown mail client
D. XenMobile NetScaler Connector
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which connection type is used when WorxWeb for iOS is configured to use Secure Browse
mode?
A. Full VPN
B. Micro VPN
C. STA Tunnel
D. Clientless VPN
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three prerequisites must be met to deploy XenMobile Device Manager in a high
availability configuration? (Choose three.)
A. IIS installed and configured on two web servers
B. VIP or host name configured on a load balancer
C. SSL Session Persistence on ports 443 and 8443 on the load balancer
D. SQL Server Database accessible from both nodes of the high availability pair
E. PostgreSQL database accessible from both nodes of the high availability pair
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 What is the recommended procedure for reverting an App Controller high availability (HA) pair
to a previous snapshot?
A. Import the snapshot to the secondary node, import the snapshot to the primary node and restart
the primary node.
B. Disable high availability, shut down the primary node and import the snapshot to the secondary
node, start the primary node.
C. Disable high availability, shut down the secondary node and import the snapshot to the primary
node,restart the primary node.
D. Shut down the secondary node, import the snapshot to the primary node, and restart the
primary node, start the secondary node.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to add 10.10.220.10 as a Subnet IP (SNIP) through the
NetScaler command-line interface. The SNIP will be used to provide connectivity to devices on
another subnet. Management access is required through the SNIP .
Which command should the engineer use?
A. add ns ip -type snip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -mgmtaccess ENABLED
B. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP -mgmtaccess ENABLED
C. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 -mask 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP -mgmtaccess ENABLED
D. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP-ssh ENABLED -restrictaccess DISABLED
Answer: B

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9. Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to publish a custom mobile application for iOS devices from
the XenMobile environment.
Security requirements for the application are as follows:
-Clipboard must be disabled.
-Application cannot be installed on jailbroken devices.
Which action must the engineer take to meet the security requirements stated in the scenario?
A. Wrap the .ipa file using the MDX Toolkit for XenMobile and configure the MDX policies.
B. Upload the .ipa file to the XenMobile Device Manager and create a deployment package to install
the application on the user device during device enrollment.
C. Upload the .ipa file directly to App Controller and require enrollment to the XenMobile Device
Manager before users can register with the App Controller.
D. Publish the application for employees using the Apple App Store and require that users download
the application from the Apple App Store instead of the App Controller.
Answer: A

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10. Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to create a proof of concept for a XenMobile project and
needs to ensure that the following requirements are met:
-Users must be able to access corporate web and SaaS applications from their personal mobile
devices.
-Access to Citrix hosted applications and desktops on XenApp and XenDesktop is NOT required at
this time.
-Users' devices should NOT be managed.
-Users will require access to WorxWeb and WorxMail.
Which three components will meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose three.)
A. StoreFront
B. Worx Home
C. MDX Toolkit
D. Citrix Receiver
E. XenMobile App Controller
F. XenMobile Device Manager server
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.8 Scenario: Support staff need GoToAssist in order to provide clients around the world with
support remotely. In order to complete this request, the Citrix Engineer must configure GoToAssist
with the XenMobile Device Manager and App Controller.
Which two items of GoToAssist information must the engineer enter in both the Device Manager
and App Controller consoles to complete the installation of GoToAssist? (Choose two.)
A. Chat Token
B. Serial Key File token
C. Email Integration Key
D. Web Console Address
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 Choose the correct statement from the options below:
A. MetaFrame XP should be installed after you have installed your applications.
B. Disable logons to a MetaFrame XP server before installing an application.
C. There are two types of application compatibility scripts.
D. When installing applications on your MetaFrame XP server, make sure that at least one remote ICA
connections is active.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When a print driver is mapped, where is the mapping placed?
A. Data store.
B. Server registry.
C. The client device.
D. %systemroot%Winnt\system32\drivers.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are NFuse features? (Choose two.)
A. Connections via IPX.
B. Cookie encryption.
C. Client side scripting.
D. Secure Socket Layer.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Under Load Evaluator, the ° m e m o r y usag ¡± rule ____ _
A. Controls memory per processor on a server.
B. Allows you to change the pool-paged bytes.
C. Sets a low and high threshold for the memory usage percentage.
D. Defines the amount of memory that can be used by load balanced applications.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Client LPT mapping is available for all clients except?
A. UNIX
B. MAC
C. DOC
D. WIN 16
Answer: B

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NO.6 Choose the correct statement:
A. If you cancel the ICA Client Distribution Wizard during the installation of MetaFrame XP, no MetaFrame
XP services will be installed and will to reinstall MetaFrame XP.
B. If you cancel the ICA Client Distribution Wizard during the Installation of MetaFrame XP, the installation
of MetaFrame XP will continue without problems.
C. You cannot cancel the ICA client distribution Wizard during the installation of MetaFrame XP.
D. The ICA client Distribution Wizard does not install the installation of MetaFrame XP.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What should be considered to determine the hardware required to run your MetaFrame XP ser ver?
(Choose three.)
A. User departments.
B. User locations.
C. Number of users.
D. Types of applications.
E. User product knowledge.
Answer: BCD

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NO.8 .What are restrictions of ICA session shadowing? (Choose two.)
A. Only one administrator can shadow a single user.
B. MetaFrame XP users cannot be shadowed from sessions on another MetaFrame XP server.
C. An administrator cannot shadow another user if that user is connected via an RDP client.
D. The window size and color depth of the ICA connection being shadowed must be less than or equal to
that of the ICA connection requesting permission to shadow.
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 1Y0-913
Exam Name: CCEA XP MetaFrame XP Presentation Server, Enterprise Ed, Feature Release 3: Administration
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NO.1 What are restrictions ofICAsession shadowing? (Choose two)
A. Only one administrator can shadow a single user.
B. MetaFrame XP users cannot be shadowed from sessions on other MetaFrame XP servers.
C. An administrator cannot shadow another user if that user is connected via an RDP client.
D. The window size and color depth of theICAconnection being shadowed must be less than or equal to
that of theICAconnection requesting permission to shadow.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Citrix Management Console requires at least which of the following for installation (Choose two)
A. 60MB of hard disk space
B. 25MB of hard disk space
C. 32MB of RAM
D. 64MB of RAM
Answer: BD

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NO.3 In Citrix Management Console what functions about the License Node are true? (Choose three)
A. Allows the addition of Citrix licenses.
B. Assign product and connection licenses to servers
C. Set MetaFrame Product Codes.
D. The removal of Citrix licenses from the server farm.
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 What information is copied to the server when a print driver is being auto-replicated? (Choose two)
A. Driver files
B. Client permissions
C. Queued print jobs
D. Registry settings'
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Which two statements regarding Installation Manager are true?
A.The installation manager node cannot publish the application automatically after installation.
B. Deleting a published application installed with Installation Managers does not result in a application
being uninstalled from the target server.
C. If a program install MetaFrame XP Presentation Server, Advanced Edition and the packager computer
on a separate Window 2000 Server system dedicated to packaging only.
D. If a program is uninstalled form a target machine locally, without the use of installation manager, the
program will not appear to be installed in the management console for MetaFrame XP.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 At what frequency are application thresholds checked by resource manager?
A. Once every second
B. Once every 5 seconds
C. Once every 10 seconds
D. Once every 15 seconds
E. Once every 20 seconds
Answer: D

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NO.7 What command would you use to change theICAport number from its default of 1494 to port 2001?
A. CHANGE MetaFrame XP PORT#2001
B. EDIT ICA PORT/2001
C. PORT CHANGE/2001
D. MODIFY ICA PORT/2001
E. ICA PORT/PORT 2001
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which file on the MetaFrame XP Server is automatically updated with printer driver information?
A. WTSPRNT.INF
B. XPPRNT.INF
C. SYSTEM.INI
D. CLTPRINT.INF
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which feature is enabled for a Participant in an Adobe Acrobat Connect session?
A.Polling pods
B.The Note pod
C.Screen Sharing
D.The Camera pod
Answer: D

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NO.2 You want to examine and make corrections to your PDF document for common output problems,
compatibility issues, and conformance to standards. Which should you choose?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which information can you preview by Selecting Preview Separations from the Output Preview dialog
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A.Resolution
B.Halftone screens
C.Emulsion options
D.One or more process plates
Answer: D

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A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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B.Document > Extract Pages
C.File > Export > Word Document
D.File > Save As and choose PostScript from the format list
Answer: C

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B.Security envelopes are only compatible with Acrobat 8 and Reader 8
C.They contain the protected file as an attachment to the envelope PDF
D.You can not use a policy server or Adobe Document Center policy with them
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does right-clicking (Windows) or control-clicking (Mac OS) on a toolbar allow you to do?
A.Undock and redock the toolbar
B.Add or delete items from a toolbar
C.Hide or show button labels on the toolbar
D.Create or delete new tools with JavaScript
Answer: B

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dialog box should you select?
A.Add Links to Adobe PDF
B.Add Bookmarks to Adobe PDF
C.Convert Document Information
D.Prompt for Adobe PDF file name
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which is the extension of a project created using Aggregator?
A.CPTA
B.CPTX
C.SWF
D.AGGR
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the most efficient way to capture actions outside the recording area?
A.Record two videos, each showing the actions in their respective recording areas.After recording, import
the slides and objects from one project into the other.
B.Use the Custom recording mode and select Force all actions into the Recording Area.
C.When creating the new project, select a Recording area that will be big enough to capture everything
you'll be doing on your screen.
D.Select either Automatic or Manual Panning prior to recording thesimulat-ion.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are creating a course for a wide audience and you are NOT sure of the screen resolution they are
using.Which project size should you choose?
A.200 x 200
B.320 x 240
C.800 x 600
D.1280 x 720
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the difference between a project template and a master slide?
A.Project templates can contain master slides; master slides cannot contain templates.
B.Project templates cannot contain master slides; master slides can contain templates.
C.Placeholders can be used in master slides but not in project templates.
D.Placeholders cannot be used in project templates.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are creating a branching course.Which is the most effective workspace to use for this project?
A.Classic
B.Effects
C.Navigation
D.Review
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two slide placeholders can be added to project templates? (Choose two.)
A.Recording Slide Placeholder
B.Image Slide Placeholder
C.Animation Slide Placeholder
D.Question Slide Placeholder
E.PowerPoint Slide Placeholder
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 You are creating eLearning content for high definition output.Which project size should you choose?
A.320 x 240
B.800 x 600
C.1024 x 768
D.1280 x 720
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are creating a simul-ation to explain how a particular dialog in Adobe Photoshop functions.Which
command should you choose to record this simul-ation?
A.Application > Snap to Custom Size.
B.Application > Snap to Application Region.
C.Screen Area > Snap to Full Screen.
D.Screen Area > Snap to Application Region.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Maya 2011 Certified Associate
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Exam Name: Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination
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NO.1 To composite two layers together you would use...
A. Composition settings
B. Garbage Mask
C. Remap Color
D. Blend & Comp
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the syntax to add a single-line comment in a script.?
A. //
B. <>
C. "
D. ==
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is a way to control deformations using a Smooth Bind?
A. Add Influence
B. Flexors.
C. Projection Box.
D. Both A and B
Answer: B

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NO.4 The ViewCube is an on-screen 3D navigation element that does which of the following?
A. Creates a multicamera rig to navigate through your scene
B. Provides feedback about stereo cameras and performs calculations to produce anaglyph images
C. Enables you to quickly and easily switch between views.
D. Provides feedback about the current camera view in relation to the 3D scene
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
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C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a brush
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Network Performance Management
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NO.1 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what do the QoS values mean?
A. They are based upon the 6-bit Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
B. They are based upon Host Group definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
C. They are based upon Application definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
D. They are based upon Port definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A

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NO.3 On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface
Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User ¯s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.4 Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select "Apply with Filter".
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 In a Cascade deployment with Sensor and Profiler, what information does the Application Performance
Policy report show? (Select 4)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Average Response time
C. TCP resets
D. CPU and memory utilization of server
E. TCP retransmission
F. Number of jumbo frames
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.6 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services
automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are the types of content blocks available to view Events
on the Cascade Profiler dashboard?
(Select 2)
A. Security Events
B. Performance and Availability Events
C. Current Events
D. Unacknowledged Events
E. Public Events
F. Private Events
G. Per User Events
H. Per IP Address Events
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Configuring the Cascade appliance to use RADIUS for authentication/authorization involves which of
the following tasks (in no particular order): (Select 4)
A. User Name
B. Specify the IP address of the RADIUS server
C. Port number
D. Password
E. Authentication protocol
F. Shared secret of each RADIUS server
Answer: B,C,E,F

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Exam Name: Developing Applications for the BlackBerry Solution
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Exam Name: Designing and Deploying a BlackBerry Solution in A Microsoft Exchange Environment
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NO.1 What are two ways to create an application UI that is consistent with the native BlackBerry UI? (Choose
two.)
A. Provide context-specific action menus on each page
B. Make use of the banner to present interactive information
C. Inherit default behaviors by using or extending existing UI components
D. Use BlackBerry UI construction tool to build the new UI from an existing template
E. Specify the font for the application screens
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which of the following can receive PIN messages? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry devices with BlackBerry Messenger
B. Any cellular phone
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. BlackBerry Internet Service
E. Any BlackBerry device
Answer: E

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NO.3 Application X needs to update the BlackBerry device user? address book with information from a
social networking site. It will also need to allow the user to tag images taken using the Camera application
and upload them to the site. Which two of the following application approaches will support these
requirements? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Widget
B. Web application
C. BlackBerry Applet
D. BlackBerry Java application
E. BlackBerry MDS-CS
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which tool should be used to facilitate application test cases by simulating BlackBerry device user
interaction with the BlackBerry Device Simulator? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator
B. Javaloader
C. Controller Command
D. ESS
E. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 Application X must receive push updates from a public server every morning. The application must
display a notification to the BlackBerry device user when the new update is received. Which two of the
following application approaches will support these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Web application with BlackBerry Internet Service browsing
B. BlackBerry Widget with BlackBerry Internet Service Push APIs
C. BlackBerry Widget with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Push APIs
D. BlackBerry Java application with BlackBerry Internet Service Push APIs
E. BlackBerry Java application with BlackBerry Internet Service browsing
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 A BlackBerry device application collects data and needs to merge it with data on a server before
pushing out an updated summary page. Which of the following collection of tools would be most
appropriate for testing this application? (Choose one.)
A. A BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator and a real BlackBerry device
B. A database server, a proxy, and a real BlackBerry device
C. A BlackBerry ESS Simulator and a real BlackBerry device
D. A web server and a BlackBerry Device Simulator
E. A BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator and a BlackBerry Device Simulator
Answer: E

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NO.7 A technician needs a field service application that will support receipt of work orders and determine a
customer location. What are two advantages of using a Java application over a web application in this
situation? (Choose two.)
A. Java applications can access a server application over the intranet
B. Java applications run consistently faster than web applications
C. Java applications can display a BlackBerry Maps Field within the application
D. Java applications require a local client
E. Java applications can operate while out of coverage
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Application X must track field service agents, report their locations back to the intranet application
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components are required for application X to function properly? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. BlackBerry Internet Service
C. A GPS enabled BlackBerry device
D. BlackBerry Internet Service Push APIs
E. BlackBerry Mobile Data System Connection Service
Answer: A,C,E

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