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Exam Code: C4120-784
Exam Name: IBM PureFlex Technical Expert V1
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Last Update: 2014-08-31

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Exam Code: A4040-225
Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 and AIX & Linux Technical Sales Skills - v2
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NO.1 A prospective client is interested in running SAP on Linux. Which of the following would make
Linux on Power a better solution than Linux on x86?
A. ISV support
B. Memory Chipkill
C. Threads per core
D. Kernel optimization
Answer: C

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NO.2 What PowerSCfeature provides a mechanism to prevent an attacker, who has gained
unauthorized access to an LPARI from deleting evidence records of the source of intrusion?
A. Trusted Audit
B. Trusted Firewall
C. Trusted Logging
D. Trusted Surveyor
Answer: C

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NO.3 What capability does Role Based Access Control (RBAC) provide to users?
A. Assume a default role at login
B. Control access to system logs
C. Perform system operations associated with roles
D. Assume the role of root under certain circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.4 How is AIX licensing and upgrade entitlement packaged?
A. AIX SWMA
B. AIX Warranty
C. AIX Service Pack
D. AIX Basic License
Answer: A

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NO.5 How is SuSe Linux Enterprise Server 11 licensed on Power Systems servers?
A. Per core
B. Per server
C. Per socket
D. Per instance
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following products can move an application between servers while the
application is running?
A. Application Manager
B. AIX Standard Edition
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. Workload Partition Manager
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer wants to mix different applications in one LPAR to reduce administration costs.
The applications must be prioritized with high and low workload.
What is the most simple way to support these requirements?
A. WPAR
B. Versioned LPAR
C. WPAR Manager
D. AIX Profile Manager
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2010-023
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NO.1 Which two resources are available on the IBM developerWorks website? (Choose two.)
A.Latest test fixes released by development.
B.Software licenses for proof of concept installs.
C.Web-based community forums and Wiki pages.
D.List of new features still under development for each product.
E.Technical tutorials and demos for developers and administrators.
Answer:C E

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NO.2 Which two statements are true regarding Support Provider Level 1 Customer Support?
(Choose
two.)
A.Level 1 Support is responsible for taking the first support call from a Customer (during
normal business
hours, Monday - Friday in line with IBMs standard 5x8 support).
B.Level 1 Support is responsible for testing new software versions of IBM products and
communicating
the release of said software to clients that have purchased it from IBM.
C.Level 1 Support is responsible for incorporating and testing any program fix provided by
Level 3
Support (as appropriate), and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass,
circumvention,
or other notice of restriction to the End User.
D.Level 1 Support is responsible logging all calls in an electronic call management system
capable of
opening an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and can report in
electronic format
historic information relating to a problem, from the first Call through to the resolution of the
problem.
E.Level 1 Support is responsible for logging all calls in an XML, Excel or Lotus 123 spread
sheet so that
Level 2 support can open an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and
can report in
electronic format historic information relating to a problem, from the first call through to the
resolution of
the problem.
Answer:C D

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NO.3 When searching the knowledge base on the IBM Support website, what is the best
search
strategy for finding targeted information?
A.Select just one product and only one keyword.
B.Select the product, operating system and a date range.
C.Target a wide set of records, by using just one keyword.
D.Select the product(s) and other specific criteria for which a solution is required.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Where can the most thorough searches on support be performed?
A.anywhere with a search dialog
B.top header of any IBM.com web page
C.always from a specific product support page
D.IBM Software Support Home page IBM.com/software/support
Answer:D

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NO.5 What are two responsibilities of the Primary Site Technical Contact? (Choose two.)
A.Opening all PMRs on behalf of all their Support Analysts.
B.Downloading software from Passport Advantage for use by the end user.
C.Assigning up to nine Secondary Site Technical Contact per end user contract.
D.Uploading all End User Debug files to ESR/SR on behalf of their support analysts.
E.Accept or deny a request for a Support Provider's engineer to obtain access to an end
users account.
Answer:C E

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Exam Code: H12-721
Exam Name: HCNP-Security-CISN (Huawei Certified Network Professional - Constructing Infrastructure of Security Network)
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NO.1 Which of the following packet drop policies can be applied to the congestion avoidance
mechanism? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Tail-drop
B. RED
C. WRED
D. WFQ
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 How many multicast IP addresses can be represented by an IP multicast MAC address?
A. 1
B. 23
C. 32
D. 24
Answer: C

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NO.3 How many port states are defined by STP?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following are popular link efficiency mechanisms?(Select 2 Answers)
A. IPHC
B. LFI
C. HDLC
D. PPP
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are correct regarding default gateway of PC in the network
running VRRP?
A. Configure only one gateway for the PC which is the IP address of Master.
B. Configure only one gateway for the PC which is the IP address of virtual router.
C. Configure two gateways for the Pc which are the IP addresses of Master and Slave.
D. Configure three gateways for the PC which are the IP addresses of Master, Slave and virtual router.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statements about VLAN mapping are true?(Select 2 Answers)
A. When sending a frame from the local VLAN, the switch replaces the VLAN tag in the frame with
another VLAN tag.
B. When receiving a frame from another VLAN, the switch replaces the VLAN tag of the frame with
the local VLAN tag.
C. When an interface receives a frame from another VLAN, it does not replace the VLAN tag of the
frame. The interface replaces the VLAN tag of the frame with another VLAN tag only when it sends a
frame.
D. The interface replaces the VLAN tag of only the frame received from another VLAN, but does not
change the VLAN tag of the frame it sends out.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about the link failure detection in STP protocol is not true?
A. When network topology is stable, the Designated Port sends BPDU packet at every Hello Time
interval.
B. When network topology is stable, BPDU packets will be transmitted periodically.
C. When the port does not receive new BPDU within a certain interval, the old configuration BPDU
will time out and the link failure can be detected.
D. The port sends Configuration BPDU at every Hello Time interval. When the link fails,
Configuration BPDU cannot be sent out. As a result, this port can detect the link failure.
Answer: D

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NO.8 RTA is a source's DR and RTB is an RP . A multicast source sends multicast data to RTA but RTB
cannot find any information about the multicast source (registered by using the PIM Register
message). Why? (Select 3 Answers)
A. RTB has no unicast routes to RTA.
B. RTA fails to learn RP information.
C. RTA has no unicast routes to RTB.
D. The RP learned by RTA is not RTB.
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Name: HP BladeSystem Administration
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Exam Code: HP5-H03D
Exam Name: Delta-Sales Essentials of HP Workstations
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Exam Code: HP2-H32
Exam Name: Selling HP Client Virtualization Solutions Exam
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NO.1 Which business concern is common with call centers?
A. The need for as much computing power as possible
B. The need to minimize disruptions
C. The need for the mobility of wireless connections
D. The need for strong security and assured compliance
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which resource is available to help you recommend an HP client virtualization solution that
meets the needs of your customer?
A. HP R&D reference architectures
B. HP thin client user guides
C. HP foundational care support
D. HP total care support
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which use cases are optimal for supporting implementation of client virtualization? (Select
two)
A. Convenience store
B. Official hard goods
C. Desktop replacement
D. Large format printing
E. Offshore
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 What does HP TeamTalk do as part of the HP Easy Tool suite?
A. provides a simplified solution for the customer to maintain and distribute thin client images
B. enables the customer to support legacy terminal operations
C. helps to make HP thin clients into HP zero clients that use the intelligence of the server to drive
the thin client
D. enables administrators to check on the health of each managed thin client using central console
Answer: B

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Reference:
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410.pdf

NO.5 What should you keep in mind about the key players in the customer's decision process?
A. They might be different from those with whom you have associated in the past.
B. Their main concern is a fast and seamless transition throughout the process.
C. They care only about overall costs associated with the new infrastructure.
D. They are the only people in the company you should talk to In terms of needs.
Answer: C

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NO.6 If your customer is already considering client virtualization, which fact should you consider?
A. The customer is likely expecting you to cone in with the lowest price.
B. The customer has already made their decision, and your job is to change their mind to go with HP .
C. The customer has already decided that HP can only provide hardware.
D. The customer likely has engaged a consulting and services provider to help with planning.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which feature is a hallmark selling point for HP t610 and t610 plus series thin clients?
A. Competitively priced mid-range thin client
B. Configuration-dependent operation system
C. Flexibility of operating systems
D. OS-dependent protocols
Answer: D

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NO.8 Why is the process of choosing a thin client much easier with HP than with Dell Wyse and
other competitors?
A. Because HP offers flexible thin clients that enable customers to use one model for a variety of
operating systems
B. Because HP thin clients are much less expensive to buy than any comparable thin client on the
market
C. Because HP offers the most comprehensive line of thin clients on the market
D. Because HP offers a much smaller line of thin client models that cover a wider range of features
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z33
Exam Name: HP Unified Wired-Wireless Networks and BYOD
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Last Update: 2014-08-31

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Exam Code: HP2-H30
Exam Name: Sales Essentials of HP Workstations - Exam
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NO.1 An organization wants to upgrade their wireless network to allow employees to connect using
their 802.11ac enabled devices. Which HP access points meet this requirement?
A. HP 425
B. HPMSM466
C. HP MSM430
D. HP 560
Answer: D

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
What does AP Echo Interval of 10 seconds indicate?
A. The access controller should send the access point (AP) an echo request every 10 seconds to
ensure that the AP is still operational.
B. The access point should send the access controller an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure
that the LWAPP tunnel is up.
C. The access point should transmit a beacon every 10 seconds.
D. The access point should send the client an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure that the
client is still connected.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is planning to deploy HP MSM466-R access points in an extreme cold environment
to interconnect to the Unified Wired-WLAN Module in the HP switch.
Which requirement is needed to accomplish this?
A. NEMA 4X enclosures should be used to house the access points.
B. Switch ports must support PoE.
C. PoE redundancy must be enabled on the interface.
D. Access Point must deploy internal antennas.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A network administrator configures 802.1X authentication on a wireless network set with an
HP 830 Unified Wired-Wireless Controller. The administrator configures a RADIUS scheme named
radius1 and a Domain scheme name domain1. Which other configuration will enable 802.1X?
A. Option A
B. OptionB
C. OptionC
D. OptionD
Answer: D

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NO.5 A branch location is deploying standalone wireless access points (APs).
What can be used to configure and manage these APs? (Select two.)
A. Access Controller
B. Web interface
C. IMC/UAM
D. IMC/EAD
E. CLI
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 An administrator changes the setting for VLAN 200 on an HP 830 switch from tagged to
untagged.
How will this change affect the traffic sent over VLAN 200?
A. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded to untagged VLAN 1.
B. Tagged management traffic can no longer be sent on VLAN 200.
C. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will have the 802.1Q tag removed.
D. Tagged traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded without changing the 802.1Q tag.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://community.spiceworks.com/topic/ 430141-understanding-vlans-with-tagged-andu
ntagged-traffic

NO.7 An organization implements an N+1 redundancy for its access controllers (ACs). When the
primary AC fails, the access points (APs) successfully fail over to the standby AC. However, when the
failed AC comes back in to service, the APs do not switch back to the original AC.
What could cause this to happen?
A. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 1.
B. APs determine which AC to connect to based on load.
C. APs do not fail back to the original AC.
D. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 7.
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.h3c.com/portal/Technical_Support___Documents/Technical_Documents/Ro
uters/H3C_MSR_50_Series_Routers/Configuration/Operation_Manual/13WLAN_Volume(V1.05)/ 20
0909/ 648837_1285_0.htm(configuring capwap dual-link, 4th row of the table, last column)

NO.8 When accessing the wireless network in 802.1X with EAP-TLS, what do the user endpoints
require?
A. username and password of the user's account
B. client certificate or root certificate
C. client certificate and root certificate
D. MS-CHAPV2 to be configured
Answer: C

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Reference:http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc739638(v=ws.10).aspxv

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Exam Code: EX0-008
Exam Name: Agile Scrum Foundation
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Exam Code: EX0-001
Exam Name: ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)
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NO.1 Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service
operation?
1.Local service desk
2.Virtual service desk
3.IT help desk
4.Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster
than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1.Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2.Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio
management?
1.Those planned to be delivered
2.Those being delivered
3.Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service
known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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C4090-452 Braindumps, P2060-017 Real Exams

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Exam Code: C4090-452
Exam Name: IBM Storwize V7000 Technical Solutions V2
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C4090-452 Exam Cost Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-08-29

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Exam Code: P2060-017
Exam Name: IBM B2B Integration SaaS Technical Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 What IBM cloud based SaaS solution enables data to be converted from one EDI
format to the required
trading partner's format for their systems?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling Process Automation
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: D

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NO.2 The top obstacles of lack of budget and cost of systems that your customer's suppliers
and buyers feel
prevents them from doing more B2B e-Commerce with their trading partners is known as
which of the
following?
A.Total cost of ownership (TCO)
B.Complexity of integration
C.Lack of resources
D.B2B Infrastructure Management
Answer: A

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NO.3 When your customer needs to move broad based megabyte and gigabyte files in the
cloud with a
one-to-many manner with their trading partners, which solution will best meet your
customer's need?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: B

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NO.4 The three solutions that make up the IBM Sterling Cloud Services or SaaS solutions
are:
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator, IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, and IBM Sterling File
Transfer
Service
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services, and IBM Sterling
B2B
Integrator
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, and IBM
Sterling B2B
Integration Services
D.None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What tool can IBM's business partners leverage that shows how a full outsourced
managed services
operation can show savings and return a handsome ROI in a relatively short time to a
customer?
A.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service Calculator
B.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator Calculator
C.IBM B2B Integration Services ROI Calculator
D.IBM B2B Automation Savings Calculator
Answer: C

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C4040-224 Exam Questions, C2010-040 Test Questions, A2040-408 Bootcamp

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Exam Code: C4040-224
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER7 Common Technical Sales Skills -v2
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Exam Code: C2010-040
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Change Configuration Release Management Implementation
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Exam Code: A2040-408
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development Update
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NO.1 Mary wants to debug the uncompressed version of the xspClientDojo.js. Which action can she
perform in order to do this?
A. Set the "Use Dojo layer libraries" option in the XSP Properties editor.
B. Set the "Use runtime optimized JavaScript and Dojo" option in the XSP Properties editor.
C. Set the "Use uncompressed resource files (CSS & Dojo)" option in the XSP Properties editor.
D. Uncompress the xspClientDojo.js file manually and upload it to IBM Domino Desginer via a JS
Library.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Hannah would like to exclude an application's image files from synchronizing with the Version
Control Management system. How can she configure this?
A. Hannah needs to list the filenames in the .svnignore file.
B. Select the files, right-click and select Do not synchronize.
C. Choose Preferences > Team > Ignore Resources > Add pattern.
D. Choose Preferences > Domino Designer > Source Control > Exclusion List.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two ways Olly can identify which of his applications are not assigned to a working set?
(Choose two.)
A. Open Bookmarks.nsf and look in the Working Sets\None view.
B. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select All.
C. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select None.
D. In Quick Links tab of the home page, click on the "Applications Not in Working Set" option.
E. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select "Applications Not in Working
Set".
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 Samantha would like to use the Search functionality provided in the Application Layout control.
What does she need to do to configure search on the Application Layout control in the Properties
view?
A. Samantha needs to click on the Place Bar tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displaying results.
B. Samantha needs to click on the All Properties tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displayingresults.
C. Samantha needs to select the Title Bar tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
D. Samantha needs to click on the Search tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When using the Pager Save State Control, which property is used to define which control the
pager applies to?
A. for
B. target
C. binding
D. refreshId
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which option will provide a formatted table with two columns, three rows, a title,
description, and footer area?
A. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><td><tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td> <td> <tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td>
</table>
B. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><tr><td></td><td></td></tr><tr> <td></td><td></td></tr><tr>
<td></td><td></td></tr></table>.
C. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drop a formlayout row onto the table. Drop two layout column
controls onto the row. Repeat twice for the additional rows.
D. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drag a formlayout column onto the table. Drop three form layout
row controls onto the column. Repeat for the second column.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Ellie wants to add an icon as the first column on her Data View. How can she achieve this?
A. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the details facet.
B. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the iconColumn property.
C. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the extraColumns property.
D. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the summaryColumn property.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Richard wants to allow his users to select names from either of two views using the Name
Picker control. How can he do this?
A. Richard can use a single Name Picker with two dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders.
B. Richard will need to add two Name Pickers, each using a dominoViewNamePicker dataProvider.
C. Richard will need to use a beanNamePicker dataProvider to merge the contents of the two views
for a single Name Picker.
D. Richard can use a single Name Picker with a namePickerAggregator dataProvider. He can add two
dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders tothe namePickerAggregator.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM i2 Analyst Notebook V8.9
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Exam Code: A2010-599
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NO.1 Which storage system is supported by the storage optimizer in IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity
Center V5.1?
A. SVC 6.2
B. SONAS 1.3
C. DS8800 R6.3
D. Storwiz V7000U 1.3
Answer: A

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NO.2 How can a user add two Storage Resource agents of different operating systems in a single job
in
the Create Storage Resource Agent Deployment window?
A. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Host List to enter the second system
B. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Agent List to enter the second system
C. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Another Agent to enter the second
system
D. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Storage Resource Agent to enter the
second system
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer needs to run a Discovery job for their VMWare environment. Where in the
stand-alone
GUI for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 would they need to navigate to create that
job?
A. Administrative Services > Discovery > VMWare
B. Data Manager > Discovery > VMWare VI Data Source
C. Administrative Services > VMWare VI Data Source > Discovery
D. Administrative Services > Discovery > VMWare VI Data Source
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which steps correctly assign a group to a role when logged into the IBM Tivoli Storage
Productivity Center V5.1 (TSPC) stand-alone GUI as a user with TSPC superuser privileges?
A. use the Data Manager > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or existing
OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save button
B. use the Job Management > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or
existing OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save button
C. use the Configuration Utility > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or
existing OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPCroles,and click on the Save button
D. use the Administrative Services > Configuration > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the
newly created or existing OS/LDAP user groupto selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save
button
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer executes a SAN Planner function and gets an error. Where can the customer
check to
verify the SAN Planner Service is running?
A. Under Administrative Services
B. Under Administrative Services > Services
C. Under Administrative Services > Services > Data Server
D. Under Administrative Services > Services > Device Server
Answer: D

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NO.6 What action would an IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 administrator take to create
a
new report using Cognos?
A. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Basic Report
B. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Cognos Report
C. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting
> Create a Report
D. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting
> Cognos Reporting
Answer: A

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NO.7 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 can communicate with which component over
IPv6?
A. SRA Agents
B. Java Web Start
C. Rollup Reporting
D. SLP Directory Agents
Answer: D

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NO.8 In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1, what are two options presented in the
Repocopy
tool for IBM DB2 Export when exporting data from repository tables? (Choose two.)
A. Export Using Text Files
B. Export Using DB2 Text Files
C. Export Using DB2 Native Format
D. Export Using Comma-separated Excel Sheet
E. Export Using Text Files Containing Comma-separated Values
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 Bill is developing Ajax portlet, In the serveResource() method first he is setting "AdminName"
request attribute and then forwarding control to .jsp for generating markup, How can he print the
"AdminName" attribute inside JSP ?
A. <%= request.getAttribute("AdminName") %>
B. <portlet:defineObjects/>
<%=renderRequest.getAttribute("AdminName")%>
C. <portlet:defineObjects/>
<%=resourceRequest.getAttribute("AdminName")%>
D. <portlet:defineObjects/>
<%=portletRequest.getAttribute("AdminName")%>
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following options is not a valid controller model interface?
A. com.ibm.portal.content.ContentModelController
B. com.ibm.portal.content.LayoutModelController
C. com.ibm.portal.content.NavigationModelController
D. com.ibm.portal.portlet.PortletModelController
Answer: C

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NO.3 Robert needs to support a language that is read from left-to-right. Which tag would he use?
A. <portal-fmt:bidi/>
B. <portal-fmt:answer/>
C. <portal-fmt:textParam/>
D. <portal-fmt:identification/>
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which variables are defined by the defineObjects tag when used on a JSP page included within
the render method?
A. portletRequest, portletResponse, portletConfig, portletSession, portletPreferences,
portletPreferencesValues
B. renderRequest, renderResponse, renderConfig, renderSession, renderPreferences
C. renderRequest, renderResponse, portletConfig, portletSession, portletSessionScope,
portletPreferences, portletPreferencesValues
D. request, response, portletConfig, portletSession, portletPreferences
Answer: C

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Topic 2, Volume B

NO.5 From what source does the Page Builder theme instantiate drag-and-drop functionality in
terms of portlets?
A. The <dnd:drag/> and <dnd:drop/> tags.
B. The theme Default.jsp sets parameters for the ibmPortalConfig object that define the
drag-anddrop
behaviors for dragging portlets.
C. The Page Builder theme does not support drag-and-drop for portlets.
D. The theme Default.jsp instantiates drag-and-drop functionality by means of loading ibmCSA.js
and calling instantiateDrag().
Answer: B

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NO.6 The XYZ company has a custom portlet that provides access to data from the company
mainframe. Twice a day, the mainframe performs a batchThe XYZ company has a custom portlet
that provides access to data from the company? mainframe. Twice a day, the mainframe performs
a batch process to update the data. During the batch process, the portlet cannot access the data.
Which one of the following options allows you to hide the portlet during the batch processing
times?
A. Use the Policy editor to create a portlet availability policy, then use the Page Layout editor to
assign the policy to the portlet.
B. Use the Policy editor to create a portlet availability policy and to assign the policy to the portlet.
C. Use the Personalization editor to create a portlet visibility rule, then use the Page Layout editor
to assign the rule to the portlet.
D. Use the Personalization editor to create a portlet visibility rule and to assign the rule to the
portlet.
Answer: C

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Topic 2, Volume B

NO.7 Evan wants to develop a portlet to act as a target using Click-to-Action. He wants to develop
a
client-side click-to-action handler. Which best describes the ways that he can get the source data
submitted by the source portlet?
A. He can retrieve the source form and the input inside from the page Document Object Model.
B. He can retrieve the source data from the window.ibm.portal.c2a.event.value global variable.
C. Either of the above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which option best describes how JSR 286-compliant portlets and widgets interact with each
other?
A. Portlets and widgets cannot interact with each other.
B. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters and events.
C. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters.
D. widgets and portlets can interact by using events.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration Update
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Exam Code: C2010-005
Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Solution Designer
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NO.1 The client has outlined in the discovery phase of the project that they want to
incorporate three
divisions,and each has a diferent chart of accounts with the same GL account
configuration.From this
information,how many organizations should be created for the solution is required to be
decided. How
many organizations should be created?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. three
Answer: D

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NO.2 which external system can be interfaced to IBM Maximo Asset Managment V7.1 to
improt meter
readings?
A. Hubometer
B. Fixed Assets
C. General Ledger
D. Control System
Answer: D

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NO.3 At which data level do asset,locations,and purchase orders reside?
A. set
B. site
C. system
D. organization
Answer: B

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NO.4 As part of setting up IBM maximo asset management V7.1,organization(s) and site(s)
are required to
be created and an organization has to ben actived. What are the required steps to activate an
organization?
A. Create a GL account,update organizations transfer asset account,and activate the
orgainzaiton.
B. Define the GL account codes,update organizations transfer asset account,and activate the
orgainzaiton.
C. Define the asset account codes,update organizations transfer asset account,and activate
the
orgainzaiton.
D. Create the asset account,update organizations transfer asset account,and activate the
orgainzaiton.
Answer: B

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NO.5 At which date level do contracts,Labor,and chart of Accounts reside?
A. set
B. site
C. system
D. organization
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement defines a maximo asset in IBM Maximo Asset Management
V7.1(MAM)
A. A Maximo Asset is a record in MAM used to identify equipment.
B. A Maximo Asset is a record in MAM used to identify company assets.
C. A Maximo Asset is any entity described in MAM to capture events and costs
D. A Maximo Asset is any physical entity described in MAM to capture events and costs
Answer: B

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NO.7 The client requirements outline the need for advanced Asset lifecycle features to
estimate compatible
units or replacement assets,This requirement and other crew management related
requirements are
determined to exceed standard IBM Maximo Asset Management capabilities.Which industry
solution or
add-on provide this and other features?
A. Maximo Linear Assets
B. Maximo for Utilities
C. Maximo for Life Sciences
D. Maximo service Management
Answer: B

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B. as the first task of Design phase
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D. at the beginning of the configuration phase
Answer: B

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NO.1 When gathering requirements for Identity Policy, which ID will define the rule to generate the
user ID?
A. Application Owner
B. Administrator
C. Manager
D. Auditor
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the default location for the Tivoli Common Reporting Pack?
A. <isim home>/reporting
B. <isim home>/jdbc/lib/data
C. <isim home>/opt/reporting
D. <isim home>/extensions/ 6.0/tcr
Answer: A

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NO.3 Password synchronization provides change to accounts of which ownership type?
A. Device
B. System
C. Individual
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.4 The criteria to setup indexes for a Directory Server attribute is based on what?
A. The frequency of replicating objects containing the attribute to a replica.
B. The frequency of reading and writing information to / from the attribute.
C. The frequency of writing information to the attribute.
D. The frequency of reading information based on the attribute's contents.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The client's IBM Security Identity Manager (ISIM) production environment consists of a two
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installed as well as one of the cluster nodes. Server #2 in the cluster just has the node installed.
If a process monitor is being configured on Server #1 how many Java processes are there related just
to Websphere?
A. 4 - Deployment Manager process, Node process, Application Server process, Messaging Server
process
B. 1- Deployment Manager and Node processes run under a single Java process
C. 3 - Deployment Manager process, Node process, Application Server process
D. 2 - Deployment Manager process and Node process
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which actions are best practice for securing IBM Security Identity Manager LDAP data?
A. Disabling anonymous read access, enabling SSL communication only
B. Allow only read access to IBM Security Identity Manager LDAP
C. Run the IBM Security Identity Manager server as non-root user
D. Enabled WebSphere global security
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where is the correct location for verifying database connections to ISIM v6.0?
A. WebSphere administrative console
B. ISIM database connection log
C. ISIM 6 Management Console
D. WebSphere transaction log
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two items are relevant when considering an increase of the ISIM 1TDS directory
instance entry cache size? (Choose two)
A. Available memory per process in the operating system
B. Number of attributes defined in v3.modifiedschema
C. Number and size of user and accounts objects
D. Current setting of ibm-slapdSizeLimit
E. Number of indexed attributes
Answer: A,E

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