2014年10月27日星期一

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Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 Implementation
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Exam Code: C4070-622
Exam Name: System z Business Resiliency Solution Selling
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Exam Code: C2010-571
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine V7.5 Implementation
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NO.1 Which of the following considered as an element of High Availability for the System z platform?
A. GRS STAR
B. Capacity Backup (CBU)
C. Sysplex Failure Management (SPM)
D. Modified Indirect Data Address Word (MIDAW) facility
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer is documenting their Disaster Recovery process, and is considering all aspects of
running the business.
The following elements have been identified as essential:
-Secondary data center location and equipment -Key responsibilities of critical business units
-Up-to-date emergency contact information for all staff
In addition to these elements, which personnel should be listed as essential to be actively engaged
in the event of a disaster?
A. Mid-level management
Storage administrators
Application development programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
B. System programmer(s)
Performance and capacity management team
Network administrator(s)
Operations analyst
C. Workload schedulers
System operator(s)
Storage administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery Manager
D. Database administrator(s)
System programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer's service level agreement has the following components and configuration
characteristics:
-RTO=24 hours -RPO=1 hour -Flash Copy to a single set of disks at a remote site -Tape backup once
per day
What would be the state of the data if a disaster occurred during a resynchronization process?
A. There would be some data loss, but the data would need to be resynchronized.
B. There would be some data loss, but RPO and RTO would support service level agreements.
C. The data would be unreliable and their RTO and RPQ would exceed service level agreements.
D. The data would be reliable with the tape backup, and support the RTO, but the RPO would
exceed service level agreements.
Answer: C

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4. When considering an environment with one zEnterprise server (CEO) and one instance of z/OS,
which of the following contributes to High Availability?
A. Parallel sysplex
B. Application failover
C. Processor Unit Sparing
D. Multiple copies of the data
Answer: C

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5. Which of the following are typically included as a part of the services component in any of the
GDPS family of products?
A. Project planning Local field support Installation assistance tools Web based training programs
B. Disaster recovery planning Development of test methodology Network implementation services
Remote implementation assistance
C. Availability planning Onsite education and training Configuration recommendations Installation
and customization assistance
D. Sizing tools TCO cost recovery tools Workload and batch analysis tools Capacity and performance
monitoring tools
Answer: C

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6. Which of the following should be included in a manufacturing customer's Business Resilience
plan?
A. Supply chain management procedure
B. Security badge replacement procedure
C. Process to record employee time cards
D. Procurement and capital acquisition processes
Answer: A

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7. A customer has an RTO of 1 to 2 hours, and an RPO of <10 seconds. The primary concerns are
to protect against a regional failure and the cost of the solution. Which of the following supports
these requirements?
A. GDPS/XRC
B. GDPSMZGM
C. GDPS/PPRC
D. GDPS/Active Active
Answer: A

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NO.1 What product makes it easy to build Scorecards and Dashboards?
A. cxReveal
B. cxResults
C. cxView
D. cxVerify
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does a Hit Attribute look for?
A. Specific text strings that can be found within the Request and Response buffer.
B. A trait or component of a session.
C. Data saved in an event
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a Report Template?
A. A framework from which you can build robust Dashboards, Scorecards, or Reports
B. Proactive notifications of changes in Event levels.
C. A way to segment Event Data.
D. Basic interface to replay a session
Answer: A

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NO.4 A Count Event could be used to record any of the following EXCEPT:
A. The abandoned cart amount
B. How many customers logged in
C. How frequently visitors see an out of stock message
D. How many times an error code is displayed
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a best practice for creating Process Scorecards:
A. Only use steps from the main process flow
B. When you first deploy a new Process Scorecard, the grading should reflect the most stringent
goals of your company.
C. You should only use compound sequence Events for all process steps
D. Your process steps should include any possible step that the visitor could take to complete the
process
Answer: A

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NO.6 When Events fire, what happens:
A. A counter is incremented that tracks the occurrence of the Event for Reports
B. An Event value can be set and saved in the session data
C. Dimension values can be set and saved in the session data
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM Systems Networking Technical Support V1
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Exam Code: C2010-599
Exam Name: IBM Storage Productivity Center V5.1 Implementation
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NO.1 A customer named Your Company is looking for a new 4-way server with 875 GB internal storage to run
Oracle 91. A competitor presented the customer with a solution that includes Dell PowerEdge 6650. The
xSeries Sales Specialist presented the customer with the IBM Eserver x365. Which of the following
should the xSeries Sales Specialist emphasize as an advantage over the competitor's solution?
A. Easy deployment tools
B. Support for internal tape drive
C. Chipkill memory and Hot Spare Memory
D. Ability to hold six internal hard drives
Answer: D

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NO.2 To best ensure high customer satisfaction and repeat business, the xService Sales Specialist should
stay involved with the customer through which of the following phases of a server deployment?
A. Production Cut-over
B. Hardware Installation
C. Customer Acceptance
D. System Test
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is the best starting point to recommend to a customer who is interested in
attending education regarding the design, architectures, features, and functions of IBM eSserver xSeries
server?
A. IBM Director Workshop
B. Servicing IBM eServer xSeries Servers
C. IBM eServer xSeries technical Principles
D. Microsoft windows 2000 installation and Performance
Answer: C

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NO.4 A new customer is still unsure about the recent decision they made to go with IBM. The customer did
not have many issues with previous suppliers and knew exactly when and where to go for a service or
support issue. Which of the following should
the xSeries Sales Specialist do early in the implementation cycle to address the customer's uncertainty?
A. Create and present a customer Support plan to the customer
B. Make sure the customer is aware of IBM's electronic customer support options.
C. Provide a home phone number in the event they need someone immediately for a hardware or
technical issue.
D. Provide the appropriate IBM support phone number in the event they need assistance with a service or
technical issue.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Upon placing an order for a customer, an xSeries Sales Specialist finds out that there is an issue with
delivery lead time. Which of the following does the Sales Specialist need to Know in order to escalate with
IBM supply management?
A. SAP number for the order
B. Customer purchase order number
C. Business partner invoice number
D. The serial numbers of the server in QUESTION NO:
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer named Your Company is reluctant to pursue a 16-way IBM eServer x445 solution because
the server does not look like a "mainframe" The Xseries Sales
Specialist believes the customer may be entertaing another vendor. Who among the following could that
competitor be?
A. HPQ
B. Sun
C. Dell
D. Unisys
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer named Your Company uses BMC Patrol to manage all the servers in their data center. They
have approached the xSeries Sales Specialist about purchasing some IBM eServer xSeries servers for a
new project. The customer has heard about the IBM Director, but is concerned that this will produce
additional administrative overhead. Which of the following statements will be most useful in addressing
the customer's concern?
A. BMC Patrol is an IBM ServerProven product.
B. A bmc Patrol module is available for IBM Director.
C. The IBM Director Console can be run on the BMC Patrol Server.
D. An upward integration module for BMC Patol is available with IBM Director
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer named Your Company has invited competitive vendors to discuss a new server farm for an
expanding area of their business. The customer is considering a variety of server types. Including multiple
processor and blade servers. In addition, the new server farm will consist of NAS servers, fiber-based
storage and fiber-based tape devices. Which TWO of the following are reasons for choosing an IBM
solution over the competitors' solutions?
A. Light based diagnostics on servers is exclusive to IBM.
B. IBM is the only vendor that provides Systems Management.
C. Different Service Level Agreements are an exclusive offering from IBM.
D. The IBM Totalstorage portfolio includes NAS, SAN storage and SAN networking products.
E. The IBM server portfolio consists of multiple processor options in tower and rack form factors.
Answer: D,E

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Exam Code: C2150-810
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NO.1 A mobile application developer is required to link a local JSONStore to synchronize with a
Worklight Adapter. To do so, to which function would the application developer need to specify the
adapter option?
A. WL.JSONStore.init()
B. WL.JSONStore.push()
C. WL.JSONStore.load()
D. WL.JSONStore.getPushRequired()
Answer: A

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NO.2 A mobile application developer has created a Worklight adapter, largeData, which returns a
large amount of data. Due to network latency, the application developer would like to compress the
data returned. How can the application developer compress the data sent between the mobile
device and the Worklight server? The developer can set compressResponse to true in the:
A. largeData.xml file.
B. largeData-impl.js file.
C. invokeProcedure function.
D. application-descriptor.xml file.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A mobile application developer has created an application for indoor shopping mall customers.
The application needs to distinguish shopping areas from eating areas inside the mall using WiFi.
How can the application developer do this?
A. Use WL.Device.getContext() to return the current geofence.
B. Use a DwellInside trigger to determine which area the user is in.
C. Use a PositionChange trigger to signal when the user moves into a different area.
D. Use the WL.Device.Geo.Profiles API to set the acquisition policy to acquire information from
bluetooth, NFC, and WiFi broadcasts.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A mobile application developer is asked to work on a mobile project and build Web resources
such as HTML, CSS and JavaScript that will later be packaged to complete the application by another
developer. What application type should be selected by the application developer in Worklight
Studio to accomplish this?
A. Inner Application
B. Shell Component
C. Native Application
D. Hybrid Application
Answer: A

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NO.5 A mobile application developer has written a hybrid android app and has enabled Push
Notifications for it. On subscribing to the eventsource with userId "TestUser", the userID that is
persisted in the database is "3266532456798262364265" instead of "TestUser". What is the cause?
A security test is missing from the:
A. adapter methods.
B. adapter methods and the application.
C. application-descriptor.xml.
D. WL.Server.createEventSource function.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A mobile application developer has written a Cordova plug-in for an application. The
developer would like to now test its functionality. To do so, what must the application developer
configure in the Worklight project? Declare the:
A. plug-in name in config.xml.
B. plug-in name in initOptions.js.
C. plug-in name in the HEAD element of the application's .html file.
D. .java class file name in AndroidManifest.xml.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A mobile application developer wishes to mock up an application quickly using the built in
Worklight Screen Templates for Dojo. How can the developer add a screen template to an existing
Dojo project? From the Worklight Studio Design view:
A. select File -> New -> Web Page and choose a template
B. right click in the Outline pane, select Add and choose a template
C. right click in the Mobile Navigation pane, select Add and choose a template
D. right click on the <app name> folder, select New -> Web Page and choose a template
Answer: C

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NO.8 A mobile application developer needs to deploy a mobile application developed using IBM
Worklight Studio to a remote server. To do so, which mandatory file must be present on the remote
server?
A. derby.jar
B. worklight-jee-library.jar
C. worklight-extension-api.jar
D. com.ibm.ws.wim.core.jar
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2010-651
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying Maximo Asset Management Solutions V3
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Exam Code: C2090-619
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Exam Code: C2010-652
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Fundamentals
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NO.1 When creating a new PM, where are detailed task steps defined?
A. on the route
B. inajobplan
C. inthePMplans
D. onthemasterPM
Answer: B

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NO.2 Across IBM Maximo Asset Management implementations, what is least likely to be
implemented at
the completion of the project (go-live date)?
A. inventory
B. work order
C. labor planning
D. preventive maintenance
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which actions are required to perform a gap analysis?
A. ldenti1i the capabilities of the software product and relate these capabilities to the executable
high-level business process steps.
B. Compare the current system with potential new standard software systems, and document and
analyze the gaps between these systems.
C. Identify all gaps between the current and future business processes, and document the steps to
resolve the differences between these processes.
D. Compare the to-be business processes with the reference processes from the standard
software system, and document and analyze the differences.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is used to compare the estimate versus actual cost for a job?
A. The project cost accounting application
B. Job plan resources and actual resources
C. Work plan resources and actual resources
D. GL debit accounts and GL credit accounts
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which IBM Tivoli product automates license tracking in order to meet compliance
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Service Provider
B. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which item describes the basic concept of Total Productive Maintenance which is a
maintenance
methodology that a customer may subscribe to?
A. fix it before it breaks
B. all assets in use, generating value
C. all maintenance personnel in use, productively
D. zero error, zero work-related accidents, and zero loss
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a possible line type value on a purchase order line?
A. Asset
B. Material
C. Inventory
D. Standard Tool
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has many assets that they would like to record and create master preventive maintenance records for in IBM Maximo Asset Management (Maximo). Which type of record, when purchasing, would create these assets in Maximo?
A. Rotating Items
B. Rotating Assets
C. Non-rotating Items
D. Non-rotating Assets
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2010-024
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Level 2 Support Tools and Processes
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Exam Code: C2010-656
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Service Request Management Implementation
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Exam Code: C4040-225
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER7 and AIX & Linux Technical Sales Skills - v2
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NO.1 What PowerSCfeature provides a mechanism to prevent an attacker, who has gained
unauthorized access to an LPARI from deleting evidence records of the source of intrusion?
A. Trusted Audit
B. Trusted Firewall
C. Trusted Logging
D. Trusted Surveyor
Answer: C

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NO.2 What capability does Role Based Access Control (RBAC) provide to users?
A. Assume a default role at login
B. Control access to system logs
C. Perform system operations associated with roles
D. Assume the role of root under certain circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.3 A prospective client is interested in running SAP on Linux. Which of the following would make
Linux on Power a better solution than Linux on x86?
A. ISV support
B. Memory Chipkill
C. Threads per core
D. Kernel optimization
Answer: C

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NO.4 How is SuSe Linux Enterprise Server 11 licensed on Power Systems servers?
A. Per core
B. Per server
C. Per socket
D. Per instance
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer wants to mix different applications in one LPAR to reduce administration costs.
The applications must be prioritized with high and low workload.
What is the most simple way to support these requirements?
A. WPAR
B. Versioned LPAR
C. WPAR Manager
D. AIX Profile Manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 How is AIX licensing and upgrade entitlement packaged?
A. AIX SWMA
B. AIX Warranty
C. AIX Service Pack
D. AIX Basic License
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following products can move an application between servers while the
application is running?
A. Application Manager
B. AIX Standard Edition
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. Workload Partition Manager
Answer: D

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2014年10月26日星期日

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Exam Code: BCABA
Exam Name: Board Certified Assistant Behavior Analyst
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NO.1 A person engages in target behaviors in environments different from the original training
environment. This is a demonstration of
A. stimulus generalization.
B. response generalization.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. response induction.
Answer: A

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NO.2 If a client exhibits problem behaviors throughout the day and evenings regardless of what is
going on in the environment and what activities he/she is participating in, which would be the BEST
way to reduce the high frequency and increase latency?
A. Use a differential reinforcement procedure for the absence of problem behaviors for an amount
of time with a high magnitude reinforcer as a reward.
B. Use a high magnitude punishment procedure every time he/she exhibits the problem behavior.
C. Use a low magnitude punishment procedure every time he/she exhibits the problem behavior.
D. Use a fixed ratio reinforcer every time he/she exhibits appropriate behavior.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Terry notices that his heart rate increases and he begins to sweat when he enters the
dentist's office because the office is associated with painful, unpleasant dental work. He also is
reluctant to make appointments and seems to want to do anything else but go to the dentist. His
physical symptoms are an example oF.
A. operant behavior.
B. respondent behavior.
C. escape conditioning.
D. aversive conditioning.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Trials to criterion refers to a measure of
A. fluency.
B. performance.
C. rate of correct responding.
D. interobserver agreement.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A reversal design does NOT permit an evaluation of an intervention for:
A. compliance.
B. reading acquisition.
C. self-injury.
D. stereotypy.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Deane's friend takes her to the mall every week. She frequently hugs people whom she does
not know. The behavior analyst wants to use an intervention that includes reinforcement of
appropriate behavior when Deane does something other than hugging. Which intervention would
be MOST appropriate?
A. Teach her friend to provide reinforcement when Deane greets others appropriately.
B. The behavior analyst goes to the mall and gives tokens to Deane for appropriate interactions.
C. Teach her friend to hug Deane when she appropriately interacts with others.
D. Teach her friend to provide tokens for appropriate interactions.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Before recruitment of participants for a research study begins, a behavior analyst needs to:
A. obtain consent from participant(s) or legal guardian(s) if necessary.
B. obtain institutional review board approval or equivalent (e.g., an ethics committee).
C. inform participants of their ability to withdraw from the study.
D. inform participants about ethical requirements and experimental procedures.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The systematic presentation and examination of information in an ABC format, where A
represents the antecedent stimuli, B represents the behavior, and C represents the consequences
following the behavior, is calleD.
A. a consequence analysis.
B. a functional analysis.
C. a response analysis.
D. a descriptive assessment.
Answer: D

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