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Exam Code: 000-737
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9 System Administrator for z/OS Exam)
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Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which two methods can be used to configure the use of a SSL secure port on a DB2 for z/OS server?
(Choose two.)
A.Specify "Y" in the SECURE column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
B.Specify a secure port value in the PORT column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
C.Update the DDF statement in the BSDS using DSNJU003.
D.Specify the TCP/IP port number in the DRDA SECURE PORT field of the Distributed Data Facility Panel
2 (DSNTIP5).
E.Specify the value of the secure port in the DRDA PORT field of DSNTIP5.
Answer:C D

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NO.2 The DB2-supplied SQL Procedure Processor stored procedure DSNTPSMP requires which two for
execution? (Choose two.)
A.DB2 for z/OS REXX Language Support
B.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB=1
C.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB > 1
D.Optimization Service Center
E.Java Virtual Machine
Answer:A B

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NO.3 Which two actions must be performed for a data sharing traditional image copy disaster recovery?
(Choose two.)
A.Use STARTRBA=ENDRBA for the conditional restart control record.
B.Start DB2 using the LIGHT(YES) keyword.
C.Use DEFER=ALL in the system parameters during the first restart.
D.Modify the IRLM start up proc to specify SCOPE=LOCAL.
E.Use the SETXCF FORCE command to delete DB2 CF structures.
Answer:C E

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NO.4 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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NO.5 A customer has just migrated their DB2 system to V9 new function mode. They currently use the
BACKUP SYSTEM utility and have optionally dumped the backup to tape. Which action should be
performed to only use the system level backup that was taken to disk?
A.Run the DSNJU003 utility and modify the system point in time backup record to have
DUMPSTATE=NONE.
B.Use the BACKUPTYPE(DASD) keyword on the RESTORE SYSTEM utility.
C.Use the TAPEDUMP(NORECSYS) keyword on the BACKUP SYSTEM utility when the backup is taken.
D.Set the RESTORE_RECOVER_FROMDUMP system parameter to NO.
Answer:D

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NO.6 A customer is performing a traditional image copy disaster recovery test. The systems programmer
creates a conditional restart control record (CRCR) but detects an error before starting DB2. Which action
should be performed to correct the CRCR record?
A.First use CRESTART,DELETE to delete the error CRCR record then CRESTART,CREATE to add a
new one.
B.Start DB2, reply "M" to the WTOR that is displayed from the first CRCR record to modify the CRCR
parameters.
C.Use CRESTART,MODIFY to modify the parameters of the error CRCR record.
D.Use CRESTART,CREATE to create a new CRCR record.
Answer:D

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NO.7 You create a system level point-in-time recovery conditional restart control record with SYSPITR value
of FFFFFFFFFFFF. Afterwards, you run the RESTORE SYSTEM utility. Which statement is correct?
A.RESTORE SYSTEM does not do anything, because this SYSPITR value indicates a "no-operation".
B.The specified LRSN is an IBM internal SYSPITR value, reserved for serviceability only.
C.RESTORE SYSTEM fails because the SYSPITR value is outside the range of valid log points.
D.The whole DB2 data sharing group is recovered without log truncation.
Answer:D

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NO.8 An accounting report shows high class 3 times. Which three could contribute to the class 3 times?
(Choose three.)
A.elapsed time
B.not accounted time
C.page latch
D.service task switch
E.synchronous I/O
Answer:C D E

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NO.9 You have to recover your complete DB2 system by image copies and the RECOVER utility. You start the
recovery with DSNDB01.SYSUTILX and DSNDB01.DBD01. Which table space must be recovered next?
A.DSNDB01.SPT01
B.DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
C.DSNDB06.SYSCOPY
D.DSNDB06.SYSDBASE
Answer:C

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NO.10 DSNDB06.SYSPLAN runs out of space. Which steps should be performed to resolve the situation?
A.1) COPY DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM
data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
6) RECOVER DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
B.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN
VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) LOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
C.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) ALTER PRIQTY to a larger value. 3) LOAD REPLACE
DSNDB06.SYSCOPY.
D.1) REORG UNLOAD SHRLEVEL REFERENCE DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3)
Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more
space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) REORG RESUME DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
Answer:A

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NO.11 A DB2 subsystem is being migrated/converted from DB2 Version 8 to DB2 9. The subsystem currently
has these characteristics: new DB2 9 functions are not available; no DB2 9 objects can exist; the
subsystem cannot fall-back to CM (conversion mode); the subsystem cannot fall-back to Version 8; the
subsystem cannot coexist with any Version 8 systems in a data sharing group. Which mode describes the
DB2 subsystem?
A.CM* (conversion mode*)
B.ENFM (enabling-new-function mode)
C.ENFM* (enabling-new-function mode*)
D.NFM (new-function mode)
Answer:B

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NO.12 What is a benefit of using the in-memory work file in DB2 9?
A.Improves performance using TEMP database.
B.Avoids I/Os for the declared global temporary tables.
C.Improves performance for small sorts.
D.Sorts a large number of rows faster.
Answer:C

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NO.13 An accounting trace shows a high get page per SQL ratio for a query which retrieves just one row each
time it is executed. Which two situations could account for the high ratio? (Choose two.)
A.Use of a matching unique index scan.
B.Use of a nonmatching index scan.
C.Use of an index with low cardinality.
D.Use of an index with high cardinality.
E.Use of a single column index that is a GENERATED ALWAYS identity column.
Answer:B C

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NO.14 You are migrating your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to DB2 9. You have already used the
user-defined RTS tables in version 8 and you are planning to also use RTS in version 9. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.DSNRTSDB is integrated into the DB2 9 catalog.
B.The existing the real-time statistics data is copied from your user-defined tables to catalog tables as part
of the migration to CM.
C.You can safely drop your user-defined RTS database once you are in ENFM.
D.You should keep your user-defined RTS database until you have fully migrated to NFM.
E.Execute DDL in member DSNTESS in SDSNSAMP to create the RTS database.
Answer:A C

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NO.15 Which privilege is required to use the ACCESS command?
A.DISPLAY
B.STARTDB
C.MONITOR
D.ACCESSDB
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which two accounting trace classes must be active when tracing package and DBRM related activity?
(Choose two.)
A.class 1
B.class 2
C.class 3
D.class 5
E.class 7
Answer:A E

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NO.17 There is a suspected problem with catalog table space DSNDB06.SYSDBASE. Should a problem be
discovered, which series of tasks could you run to analyze and resolve the problem?
A.Run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary.
B.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DBD against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary.
C.START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(UT); run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run
REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(RW).
D.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run CHECK DATA to validate RI constraints; run DSN1CHKR
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Answer:C

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NO.18 A user job runs a very long time without commit and then the application abends. The job updated a
critical table that is used by many applications. The back out is taking a long time. Which statement
describes the appropriate action to take?
A.Cancel the DB2 system since this is a critical resource that is needed by many applications.
B.Issue the -CANCEL THREAD(token) NOBACKOUT.
C.Let DB2 continue with the back out.
D.Restart the system using the LBACKOUT=AUTO system parameter.
Answer:C

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NO.19 By examining a DB2 accounting report, how can you determine if DASD I/O contention is a factor in a
poor performing application?
A.Divide the number of get pages by the number of synchronous I/Os.
B.Divide the synchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
C.Divide the asynchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
D.Divide the class 2 elapsed time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
Answer:B

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NO.20 Which three statements are correct for automatic management of buffer pool storage in DB2 9?
(Choose three.)
A.You do not need to ALTER BUFFERPOOL with AUTOSIZE(YES) to enable this functionality.
B.DB2 provides sizing information to WLM.
C.DB2 communicates to WLM each time allied agents encounter delays due to read I/O.
D.DB2 periodically reports BPOOL size and random read hit ratios to WLM.
E.The automatic altered buffer pool sizes are resized to the original with the recycle of the DB2
sub-system.
Answer:B C D

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NO.21 Which two statements regarding system parameters are true? (Choose two.)
A.Indexes can now be mapped to 8K and 16K buffer pools assigned by default using the system
parameter IDXBPOOL.
B.Implicit table space data sets are always defined at create time without a system parameter to override
this behavior.
C.Indexes can be compressed for an entire subsystem by setting the IDXCOMP system parameter to
YES.
D.The default for BIND option DBPROTOCOL can no longer be specified using the system parameter
DBPROTCL.
E.The amount of work file storage used by any one agent cannot be controlled via system parameters.
Answer:A D

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NO.22 Within which two DB2 address spaces may the execution of a DB2 stored procedure occur? (Choose
two.)
A.Workload Manager SPAS
B.Database Services (DBM1)
C.DB2-established SPAS
D.Distributed Data Facility (DDF)
E.System Services (MSTR)
Answer:A B

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NO.23 Which two statements are true regarding a traditional image copy disaster recovery in a data sharing
environment? (Choose two )
A.All members defined to the data sharing group must be restarted at the disaster recovery site.
B.When using change log inventory (DSNJU003), the latest log record sequence number that can be
used is the oldest last written log record of all members participating in the restart.
C.Only one conditional restart control record (CRCR) needs to be created for the data sharing group and
all DB2 members will utilize this CRCR during restart.
D.SETXCF FORCE commands should be used to purge DB2 coupling facility structures prior to staring
the first DB2 member.
E.The catalog and directory must be recovered by first data sharing member brought up at the disaster
recovery site and all other members must not be started before this recovery is finished.
Answer:B D

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NO.24 Your administrative scheduler shows message DSNA679I indicating that one or both copies of your
task lists is not accessible or is corrupted. Your analysis shows that only the VSAM file is corrupt, but the
ADMIN_TASKS table is still operational. Which statement describes how to correct this situation?
A.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and let DB2 perform an autonomic recovery using the
content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
B.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use REPRO utility to copy the contents of the VSAM
cluster containing the ADMIN_TASKS table.
C.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use DB2 command -RECOVER TASKLIST to
recover the content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
D.No manual interaction is needed as long as the ADMIN_TASKS table is still accessible.
Answer:A

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NO.25 Which statement is true regarding disaster recovery scenarios?
A.When using the RESTORE SYSTEM utility, each DB2 member must use the same SYSPITR value
when creating conditional restart control records (CRCR).
B.When using an advanced disk mirroring solution, a conditional restart of DB2 must still be performed at
the disaster site.
C.With a synchronous peer to peer replication solution, a group restart is not required for a data sharing
group since everything is synchronously mirrored.
D.A backup taken from the BACKUP SYSTEM utility cannot be used for object level recovery for the
catalog/directory during a disaster recovery scenario.
Answer:A

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NO.26 In a data sharing system, a system programmer observes very high page p-lock contention. Which two
actions can they take to reduce this contention? (Choose two.)
A.Reduce row level locking for objects used in high volume transactions.
B.For table spaces defined with LOCKSIZE ANY, use ISOLATION(UR) for high volume query transactions
using these objects.
C.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use COMPRESS NO.
D.Ensure heavy used indexes are defined with COPY NO.
E.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use TRACKMOD NO.
Answer:A E

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NO.27 A DASD controller error occurs which results in all of the active logs being marked as "STOPPED" by
DB2. Which steps should be performed to resolve the log status after the controller error has been
repaired?
A.1) Stop DB2. 2) Start DB2.
B.1) Stop DB2. 2) REPRO the archive logs to the corresponding active logs. 3) Start DB2.
C.1) Stop DB2. 2) Use DSN1LOGP to make sure last log record written matches the information in the
BSDS. 3) Do a conditional restart specifying ENDRBA to the highest RBA in the log.
D.1) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to delete the active logs from the BSDS. 2) Use the
change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to add the active logs back into the BSDS.
Answer:D

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NO.28 You are planning the migration of your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to version 9. Rebinding existing
packages is highly recommended, but you are also worrying about potential problems that might occur
with new access paths after rebind. Which action gives you the option to rebind packages with the ability
to fall back to the original access path if performance problems are encountered?
A.Use REBIND PACKAGE option PLANMGMT(BASIC) or (EXTENDED).
B.Use REBIND PACKAGE option REOPT(ONCE).
C.Use REBIND PACKAGE option OPTHINT.
D.Use REBIND PACKAGE option KEEPDYNAMIC(YES).
Answer:A

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NO.29 Regarding SVC dumps for the DBM1 address space, what should be reviewed to determine the DB2
failing component?
A.the GRS summary
B.the LOGREC symptom string
C.the RMM Control Block Analysis
D.the RSM summary
Answer:B

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NO.30 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 000-017
Exam Name: IBM (Foundations of Tivoli process automation engine V7.1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 When defining Security Groups which parameters can be specified?
A. Users, Sites, Applications and Storerooms
B. Storerooms, Group, Person and Applications
C. Users, Security, Data Restrictions and Access Rights
D. Permissions, Applications, Locations and Departments
Answer: A

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NO.2 A business requires the blocking of status changes when a work order record is in workflow, unlocking
at a certain point to perform a status change to APPR, and then relocking when the status change occurs.
Leveraging the workflow tool, what are the necessary data elements and steps to meet this requirement?
A.On the workflow connector line where the status block is to begin use the NOSTATUS action. To unlock
the status change block, prior to the next status change, on a connector line use the OKSTATUS action.
B.In the Actions application, for the work order object, create the following Change Status type actions:
OKSTATUS, WOAPPR, NOSTATUS. On the workflow connector line where the status block is to begin
use the NOSTATUS action. To unlock the status change block, prior to the next status change, on a
connector line use the OKSTATUS and WOAPPR actions.
C.In the Actions application, create an Action Group for the work order object with the following members
in the following order: OKSTATUS, Work Order Approval action, NOSTATUS. On the workflow connector
line where the status block is to begin use a NOSTATUS action. To unlock the status change block, prior
to the next status change, on a connector line use the Action Group.
D.In the Actions application, for the work order object, create the following Change Status type actions:
OKSTATUS, WOAPPR, NOSTATUS. Create an Action Group for the work order object with the following
members in the following order: OKSTATUS, WOAPPR, NOSTATUS. On the workflow connector line
where the status block is to begin use a NOSTATUS action. To unlock the status change block, prior to the
next status change, on a connector line use the Action Group.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which method is used to validate the escalation being created?
A.Choose the Select action for Validate.
B.There is no validation of the escalation.
C.Save the escalation. Validation is automatic.
D.Click the Action button, which resembles a green check mark.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which three workflow application actions (APPACTION) can only be used in conjunction with an
Escalation and the WFASSIGNMENT object? (Choose three.)
A.WFAUTO
B.WFCOND
C.WFREJECT
D.WFINITIATE
E.WFACCEPT
F.WFESCALATE
Answer: CEF

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NO.5 When the agent saves the service request ticket, the system launches into a Service Request
Workflow process and evaluates the data on the record. If the agent has not entered asset, location, or
configuration item data, the system displays a dialog box with the following options:
Close ticket - informational call
Close ticket - unauthorized caller
Close ticket - misdirected call
Take no action
If an asset, location, or configuration item is specified on the record, the system displays a dialog box with
the following options:
Take Ownership of ticket
Assign Ownership of ticket
Create Work Order
Take no action on this ticket
Which three Nodes are used in this part of the workflow process? (Choose three.)
A.Wait
B.Input
C.Task
D.Condition
E.Interaction
F.Manual Input
Answer: DEF

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NO.6 The property mxe.rmi.port can be found in maximo.properties and by the System Properties
application.
If mxe.rmi.port is set to 0 in the properties file, and is set to 1090 from the System Properties application,
which statement is true about this property?
A.This property value cannot be set to 0 in the properties file. Therefore, the value must be 1090.
B.The Tivoli process automation engine terminates with an error on startup because the two settings are
not consistent.
C.The value in the Tivoli process automation engine properties overrides the value found in the properties
file. So the property value would be 1090.
D.The value in the properties file overrides the value found when viewing Tivoli process automation
engine properties, so the property value would be 0.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two types of condition can be created using the Conditional Expression Manager? (Choose
two.)
A.class
B.unique
C.universal
D.expression
E.conditional
Answer: AD

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NO.8 Which factor would normally be considered when developing a primary location hierarchy?
A.the financial relationship between locations
B.the functional relationship between locations
C.the geophysical relationship between locations
D.the organizational relationship between locations
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer wants to ensure that any data sent to the Tivoli process automation engine's Integration
Framework for retrieval of financial data into the Tivoli process automation engine can survive restarts
and failures.
Which statement is true?
A.A JMS messaging engine must be configured with a persistent data store.
B.The customer must have the persist data option set for the Integration Framework adapter.
C.It can be configured by setting a property inside the Tivoli process automation engine after installation.
D.The messages are stored local to the adapter and will survive failures without any additional
configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which function is performed when enabling Application Server security during the installation?
A.configuring Database Server to use Application Server security
B.configuring the Tivoli process automation engine application so that it handles authorizations to use the
application
C.modifying the J2EE application so that authentication will be handled by an external source such as
IBM Tivoli Directory Server or Microsoft Active Directory
D.modifying the Tivoli process automation engine application so that authentication is handled through
the application rather than an external source such as IBM Tivoli Directory Server or Microsoft Active
Directory
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which property must be specified in maximo.properties?
A.mxe.db.user
B.mxe.rmi.port
C.mxe.http.port
D.mxe.UserLicenseKey
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which configuration option should be set when creating an escalation?
A.any related notifications to the escalation
B.the severity of the event that will be created
C.pager numbers in a comma-separated list in the escalation
D.the Peregrine or Remedy queue in which the escalation is placed
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two data elements are required to configure a Conditional user interface Control? (Choose two.)
A.Domain
B.Person Group
C.Object Structure
D.Signature Option
E.Conditional Expression
Answer: DE

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NO.14 Which type of domain has an internal value?
A.Table
B.Numeric
C.Synonym
D.Crossover
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which type of domain cannot have a Lookup created for it?
A.Table
B.Numeric
C.Synonym
D.Numeric Range
Answer: D

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NO.16 What does the Schedule field refer to when creating an escalation?
A.the schedule by which the escalation will poll for conditions
B.the scheduled working hours of the escalation response team
C.the scheduled days of the week for which the escalation path is valid
D.a scheduled timer that is set when the condition checked by the escalation change, after which the
escalation fires
Answer: A

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NO.17 A client has a workflow requirement on new asset records. Part of this requirement is that the
Contracts representatives from the Lease and Warranty groups review and validate contracts the asset
may or may not be under. The asset record cannot move to the next part of the workflow process until all
assignments are completed.
Which data elements and actions can be used to configure this part of the workflow process?
A.Use an Interaction node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate
that the Perform Acceptance Action is for when all assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive
connection line coming from this Task node to indicate an action that Leasing and Warranty Contracts
have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative connection line coming
from this Task node to indicate an action that Leasing and Warranty Contracts have been reviewed and
this asset is not under a contract.
B.Use a Task node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate that the
Perform Acceptance Action is for when all assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive connection
line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that indicates that Leasing and Warranty
Contracts have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative connection line
coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that Leasing and Warranty Contracts have been
reviewed and this asset is not under a contract.
C.Use an Interaction node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate
that the Perform Acceptance Action is for when any assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive
connection line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that indicates that Leasing and
Warranty Contracts have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative
connection line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that Leasing and Warranty Contracts
have been reviewed and this asset is not under a contract.
D.Use a Task node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate that the
Perform Acceptance Action is for when any assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive connection
line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that indicates that Leasing and Warranty
Contracts have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative connection line
coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that Leasing and Warranty Contracts have been
reviewed and this asset is not under a contract.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A pharmaceutical company has made a tremendous number of configurations in their development
environment in order to meet their business requirements and the government regulations. The company
is ready to move 25% of these configurations into the test environment.
How should this be accomplished?
A.Export the XML and then import it again as appropriate into the test environment.
B.All of the configurations must be brought over. It is impossible to define only 25% of the configurations.
C.A package of the appropriate configurations should be defined and created. It should be distributed and
then deployed into the test environment.
D.Create a package of the appropriate configurations. Then use the Integration Framework to export
those configurations. Finally, use the Integration Framework to import the configurations into the Test
environment again.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which statement is true about the Conditional Expression Manager?
A.It creates and stores libraries of SQL statements.
B.It dynamically assigns a user to a Security Group based on a condition.
C.It controls workflow paths automatically when certain users are involved.
D.It creates conditions for group membership to automatically associate users into groups.
Answer: A

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NO.20 When creating a new escalation, what is the most likely reason that the conditional SQL Expression
Builder does not list attributes to use?
A.An object has not been linked in the Applies To field.
B.The escalation has not been linked to an existing attribute.
C.The Create Condition Entry Disabled check box is selected.
D.The escalation has not been linked to an existing application.
Answer: A

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wizard
B. use a master build descriptor plugin.xml file to control which build descriptor part is used for each
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C. move the program to a different project so that all programs in each project use the same default build
descriptor part
D. create a build descriptor part for the program and specify it in the EGL Default Build Descriptors for the
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Answer: D

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NO.2 Which primitive type provides the best performance for a counter used to control a loop with maximum
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A. DECIMAL
B. INT
C. NUM
D. SMALLINT
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which choice is a valid stereotype for a record?
A. Array
B. CSV
C. ExternalType
D. Form
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which EGL statement is used to send a text form to a user, receive input from the user, and always
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A. show statement
B. converse statement
C. forward statement
D. display statement
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which EGL statement demonstrates the correct way to initialize a dynamic array of integers so that the
first element has the value 3?
A. myArray INT =3;
B. myArray INT[] =3;
C. myArray INT[3];
D. myArray INT[3] =3;
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-669
Exam Name: IBM (SOA Fundamentals (2008))
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NO.1 In applying SOA, which principle can reduce overall cost?
A.Reuse services across lines of business.
B.Build services for only the most important business functions.
C.Build general services that can perform a variety of business tasks.
D.Reimplement all services on a consistent hardware and software platform.
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which SOA architectural concept is applied as an organization combines services to perform a
business process?
A.Modularity
B.Composition
C.Encapsulation
D.Separation of concerns
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which statement describes a business process in the context of SOA?
A.It is a business policy or decision procedure.
B.Items are accumulated and then processed together.
C.It is a series of tasks connected together like building blocks.
D.It enables interactions between message consumers and providers.
Answer:C

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NO.4 When is an SOA implementation most appropriate?
A.Real-time performance is critical.
B.An immediate Return on Investment (ROI) is required.
C.The application interfaces require a high degree of customization.
D.Business functionality is required by many parts of the organization.
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which is a driving business need for SOA?
A.Automate and optimize processes
B.Security, governance and infrastructure
C.Governance, infrastructure and connectivity
D.Interoperability, standards and application integration
E.High availability of hardware, operational systems and services
Answer:A

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NO.6 A company has implemented a number of business processes using SOA services. How do they
determine if their new processes are helping the organization to achieve its business objectives?
A.They establish a Center of Excellence (CoE) to monitor and report on the SOA services performance.
B.They contact a third party to analyze and evaluate the new processes against the business objectives.
C.They set and monitor Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) to track performance against the business
objectives.
D.They model the new processes in a business model simulator to identify bottlenecks and potential
performance issues.
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which role does WS-Security play in an SOA?
A.It provides security interchange for RESTful Web services.
B.It enforces authentication and authorization within an SOA.
C.It provides an end-to-end security context among Web services.
D.It provides a security implementation for Enterprise Service Buses (ESB).
Answer:C

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NO.8 How can disparate services communicate with each other in an SOA?
A.Use XML messages to provide interoperability.
B.Service providers adopt one common data model for all services.
C.Enforce a common data model at the Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) layer.
D.Business analysts create the integration logic details to negotiate between services.
Answer:A

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NO.9 How are the capabilities of a Web 2.0 application enhanced by SOA?
A.Two or more SOA services may be connected together to create a new business process, such as in
the case of a mashup.
B.Business users can visually assemble mashups by blending publicly available information and services
with a company's internal information and services.
C.Syndication of site content is enabled through the use of SOA, since it involves standardized protocols,
which permit end-users to make use of a site's data in another context.
D.The community that uses the SOA services can employ community mechanisms on the application,
such as ratings and comments, to provide feedback so the application can be improved on the next
iteration.
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which initiative helps achieve business agility in SOA?
A.Pairing up the appropriate service consumers and providers.
B.Buying prefabricated objects to quickly implement business functions.
C.Choreographing a business process to efficiently implement the desired business functions.
D.Designing and developing a new business process model rather than adapting an existing one.
Answer:C

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NO.11 What does the information in the service registry support?
A.The complete service lifecycle
B.Runtime lookup of service endpoints
C.Enhances messages through mediation
D.Transformation of messages between different technologies
Answer:B

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NO.12 Failure to adopt SOA will result in which outcome?
A.Automation of document processing will be difficult.
B.Extremely high volume, synchronous, real-time transactions will occur.
C.Integration costs continue to grow without being offset by new business opportunities.
D.IT budget will increase to cover the cost of additional governance and development activities.
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which business driver would cause a company in the healthcare industry to consider SOA?
A.Government regulations for communication and interoperability between companies continue to change.
B.The cost of healthcare is increasing extremely fast and SOA will bring the costs back under control.
C.Since doctors and other medical practitioners do not understand IT, SOA can shield these roles from
the underlying technology implementation.
D.Medical providers at smaller companies that use .Net can communicate to larger parent companies that
use Java through Web services interoperability.
Answer:A

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NO.14 Which basic characteristics of SOA can contribute to business agility?
A.Reuse and security
B.Loose coupling and reuse
C.Governance and integration
D.Point-to-point integration and extensibility
Answer:B

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NO.15 Which need drives a project to use an SOA approach?
A.Business flexibility
B.Resource virtualization
C.Application integration
D.Improved systems management
Answer:A

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NO.16 In the context of SOA and Business Process Management (BPM), what demonstrates flexibility in a
business process?
A.Tasks can be rearranged without impact to the user.
B.Business rules can be dynamically stopped at runtime.
C.New services can be built at runtime without any special tooling.
D.Business processes can be automated so they do not require feedback.
Answer:A

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NO.17 If a component of the overall system is functionally complete and operates within that system
independently from the functionality of the other components, it is an example of which SOA architectural
concept?
A.Modularity
B.Extensibility
C.Loose coupling
D.Separation of concerns
E.Composite implementation
Answer:A

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NO.18 A retail company is having difficulty implementing changes to its business process. Lines of business
maintain their own data stores and proprietary access interfaces. There are several manual steps which
involve recapturing of data. How can they change this process to make it more efficient?
A.Outsource the shipping function to reduce overhead costs.
B.Create services that combine application and information assets.
C.Create shared services to eliminate redundancies in the process.
D.Choose the latest technology available to integrate the applications and resources.
Answer:C

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NO.19 What is a role of Web services in building an SOA?
A.To provide interoperability using XML-based messages
B.To provide an interface for human interaction using task lists
C.To provide loose coupling via remote method invocations using JAX-RPC
D.To implement the service functionality through interfaces defined in the applications' BPEL
Answer:A

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NO.20 What is a typical requirement in an SOA environment for determining business success?
A.Adherence to six-sigma business guidelines
B.A dashboard for reporting metrics to business analysts
C.The ability to pilot the solution in a production environment to business stakeholders
D.The capability to monitor and measure performance against business process goals
Answer:D

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NO.1 Which of the following describes the major steps in the deployment process for a Cognos 8 BI
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A.Plan, verify, and customize
B.Move, customize, and verify
C.Plan, move, and secure
D.Plan, move, and verify
Answer:D

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B.New technology often contains internal flaws and errors that affect the delivered solution.
C.The solution is focused on a single subject area.
D.Developers often focus on just the data.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which of the following is correct regarding report execution requests?
A.A low affinity request is directed to the same process that served up the originating low affinity request if
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B.A low affinity request can be processed using a high affinity connection when a low affinity connection is
not available.
C.An absolute affinity request does not require a connection because it has priority.
D.A high affinity request can be processed using a low affinity connection if there are no high affinity
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Answer:D

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A.Check the design by conducting an assembly test.
B.Check the design by conducting a component test.
C.Check the design against the business requirements.
D.Check the design against the developed components.
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which of the following is correct regarding the processing of a PageDown high affinity request?
A.The request is routed to the same process that served up the originating low affinity request if the
process is available and if there is an available high affinity connection.
B.The request is given priority and is always processed by the same process that served up the
originating low affinity request.
C.The request is load-balanced and is sent to any available dispatcher in the system.
D.The request is automatically queued and is processed by the first available low affinity connection in the
system.
Answer:A

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NO.1 Having been given a new application, Bob has created an application catalog portlet. How does he
make the application available to users?
A. Users can access the application directly from a URL generated by the policy notification task
B. He wires several portlets to complete the application configuration, then notify users of its existence
C. When creating a page to contain the application, he chooses the "Notify users of new application"
option
D. He creates, set security access to, and deploys a new page; and users can access the application from
the application catalog on that page
Answer: D

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NO.2 William is preparing to export a template to XML for use on another Workplace Services Express server.
Where is this capability exposed?
A. In the Template Library
B. In the Administration panel
C. In the Template Policies Panel
D. In the WebSphere Administration Console
Answer: A

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NO.3 One template in George's Workplace Services Express deployment has been modified from another
template, and no longer fits the description of the original. What can be changed to make the template
appear differently in the list of template types?
A. Template name
B. Template title
C. Template section
D. Template category
Answer: D

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NO.4 Arman has deployed and supports several applications on a Workplace Services Express server. In
order to edit applications, which role must be assigned to a user?
A. Editor
B. Manager
C. Super User
D. Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which roles will allow users to view Templates from the Template Library?
A. Template Owner or User
B. Template Editor or User
C. Template Owner or Editor
D. Template Developer or Owner
Answer: C

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NO.6 Philip created a new application catalog portlet. How does he configure it for a new category of
application?
A. Modify the catalog policy setting in the WebSphere Administration Console
B. Open the Administration screen, choose the portlet and configure its properties
C. Because category association is automatic based on the name of the portlet, he does nothing
D. Open the page that contains the catalog portlet, click the configure wrench icon, and then select the
category
Answer: D

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NO.7 When Gerald's company developed a new application for Workplace Services Express, it did not fit into
any of the categories of previous applications, such as Team Spaces or Document Libraries. In addition to
creating a new category, what else must he do to make the application available for users?
A. Create a new application catalog list
B. Nothing, the application will show up with others
C. Create a new page with a link to the new application
D. Create an application catalog portlet to list all applications belonging to the new category and a page to
contain the new application catalog portlet
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following portlets are required in order for Ron to deploy a new template for applications?
A. Application home portlet and membership portlet
B. Application description portlet and membership portlet
C. Application roles portlet and Application home portlet
D. Application calendar portlet, membership portlet and Common PIM portlet
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following can Craig modify in a template's properties?
A. Title, Skins and Template Owner
B. Title, Theme, and Template Editor
C. Category, Theme and Template Owner
D. Category, Skins and Template Editor
Answer: C

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NO.10 Rob's company has Workplace Services Express development, staging and production servers. The
development team has created a new template on the development server. How does he move the
template from the development server to the staging server to the production server?
A. He runs XmlAccess to backup the template and restores it to the next server
B. He configures the development, staging and production servers to replicate template design
C. He exports the template as an XML file on one server, and imports it onto the next using the Workplace
Template Library
D. Each time the template is modified, he asks the development team to redeploy the .war file, which he
imports using the Portlet Manager
Answer: C

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NO.1 What can be used to provide remote users with access to Controller over limited bandwidth networks?
A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
B. Citrix (Terminal Server)
C. Deterministic Network Enhancers
D. Installing the Gateway in a DMZ
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does configuring the .Net 2.0 Framework accomplish?
A. It allows the Controller COM+ object to access the Controller Database.
B. It allows users to communicate with the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK.
C. It creates a Trust between the Controller Client Distribution Server and the Controller client computer.
D. It allows for the encryption of communication between internal server components.
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A. To allow users to publish their Framework Manager models for use with Controller.
B. It provides a Graphical User Interface for configuring the code groups.
C. It is used to configure the Controller Data Mart Database.
D. It is needed when using Controller with SSL (Secure Socket Layer).
Answer: B

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A. Client Distribution Server
B. Content Management Server
C. Web Services Server
D. Report Server
Answer: A

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NO.5 Enhance Reporting Optimization uses which of the following method(s)?
A. RSS 1.0 or higher, if the Database OS is Unix
B. File Copy, if the database OS is Windows
C. RDP to the Web Services Server
D. Controller's FastNet copy utility
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-955
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 6.1 Deployment and Administration)
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NO.1 Which of the following set of database domains from WebSphere Portal v6.0 can be shared during the
migration to WebSphere Portal v6.1?
A.release, community
B.release, community, jcr
C.jcr, customization, feedback,likeminds, and sync
D.jcr, customization, feedback, likeminds, and community
Answer:C

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NO.2 After completing a new installation of WebSphere Portal with IBM HTTP Server, it is decided that the
default URL of http:///wps/myportal should be changed to http:///wps/myhome. Which command will allow
an administrator to accomplish this task?
A.WPSconfig update-portal-uri
B.WPSconfig update-servlet-uri
C.WPSconfig modify-servlet-path
D.xmlaccess -in \scripts\update-uri.xml -user -password -url http://localhost:/wps/config
http://localhost/wps/myhome
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about URL Mapping is true?
A.A single portal page can have only one friendly URL.
B.Friendly URLs do not have control over setting the language for a page.
C.Users must have the Editor role for a page to create a URL Mapping context on that page.
D.A!friendly*URL is a valid URL Mapping context.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Jack is experimenting with creating a portal page and wants 5 columns of portlets. He does not see
this among the pre-defined page layouts. What must he do in order to customize the page layout?
A.Jack can select one of the pre-defined page layouts and press the Add Column button, which appears
by default, until he sees 5 columns.
B.Jack can add 5 portlets to a single container, which will automatically align the portlets into horizontal
columns.
C.Jack must first enter Edit mode of the portlet and check the option named Show toggle link for "Show
layout tools/hide layout tools".
D.Jack must select from among the pre-defined page layouts because those are the only options.
Answer:C

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NO.5 As the Portal administrator, you are exporting and transferring a document library from a staging system
to a production system. You have successfully created an empty shared directory to hold the exported
document library. Both the staging and production servers have write access to the shared directory.
When you move the document library from the staging system to the production system, which of the
following occurs to private drafts?
A.They are converted to submitted drafts
B.They are transferred without modifications
C.They will all be converted to the same UUID
D.They are appended a new document version number
Answer:B

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NO.6 David is planning to apply a service pack to the production portal cluster but does not want to interrupt
service to users, what must he do to ensure that portal remains functional during the service pack process
if he has no additional hardware resources to leverage for the upgrade process?
A.Install and create an additional Portal cluster on a new machine. Perform the service packs upgrade on
this new machine and route traffic to this machine to serve the user load. Once the new installation is
complete, remove the current cluster and machine from the network.
B.It is not possible to maintain service during a service pack application, only during minor fixes, David
must choose a time when there is not likely to be many users of the system.
C.Stop one Portal node from the cluster to perform service packs upgrade, while maintaining another
Portal node running to serve the user load. Restart the upgraded node and stop the other node to perform
service packs upgrade. Restart deployment manager once upgrade completes to synchronize changes.
D.On a node-by-node basis, remove the node from servicing requests, upgrade the node, redirect traffic
to the upgraded node and upgrade remaining nodes in the same way.
Answer:D

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NO.7 WebSphere Portal can use the WebSphere Application Server capabilities to support HTTP session
failover, which enables one node in a cluster to access information from the existing HTTP session in
case of a failure in the cluster node originally handling that session. This is called?
A.cluster affinity
B.distributed sessions
C.plug-in cluster failover
D.node management
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which portlet is used to create policy rules?
A.Personalization Editor
B.Resource Policies
C.Policy Rules Editor
D.There is no portlet ?the XML configuration interface must be used.
Answer:A

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NO.9 Mark has applied a fixpack which includes portlets and configuration changes on the primary portal
server of their clustered environment. He is going to apply the same fixpack on the secondary portal
server of their clustered environment. Which of the following is correct for his task?
A.He needs to follow the same procedure as he did for applying the fixpack on the primary portal server.
B.He needs to follow the same procedure he did for applying the fixpack on the primary portal server
except that he does not need to run the portal configuration tasks required for the fixpack.
C.He needs to follow the same procedure he did for applying the fixpack on the primary portal server
except that he does not need to redeploy the updated portlets required for the fixpack.
D.He does not need to apply the fixpack to the secondary server because all the changes will be able to
be synchronized to the secondary server.
Answer:B

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NO.10 Paul is accessing the ABC Tile Company's Web site that is a WebSphere Portal server. Upon entering
a URL he manually typed into his browser, he discovers that the page requires authentication for access.
Which of the following is the result if portal security is not enabled?
A.He is presented with a Login page
B.He is forced to a HTTPS connection for the page access
C.He is allowed access to the page he originally requested
D.He is provided an authentication error and shown the page that he requested
Answer:A

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NO.11 Frank wants to enable security on search results when using a remote search service, Frank should
choose which type of search service during configuration?
A.EJB
B.Web services via SOAP
C.Web services via WSDL
D.Add security user parameter to the search service configuration page
Answer:A

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NO.12 What is the minimum role required on a page to create a private wire?
A.Privileged user
B.Editor
C.Manager
D.Administrator
Answer:A

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NO.13 Mark has applied a fixpack which includes portlets and configuration changes on the primary portal
server of their clustered environment. He is going to apply the same fixpack on the secondary portal
server of their clustered environment. Which of the following is correct for his task?
A.He needs to follow the same procedure as he did for applying the fixpack on the primary portal server.
B.He needs to follow the same procedure he did for applying the fixpack on the primary portal server
except that he does not need to run the portal configuration tasks required for the fixpack.
C.He needs to follow the same procedure he did for applying the fixpack on the primary portal server
except that he does not need to redeploy the updated portlets required for the fixpack.
D.He does not need to apply the fixpack to the secondary server because all the changes will be able to
be synchronized to the secondary server.
Answer:B

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NO.14 To which of the following can skins and themes be applied to maintain a consistent look-and-feel in the
portal environment?
A.Pages
B.Portal
C.Images
D.Screens
Answer:A

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NO.15 When creating names that can be mapped to contexts for portal pages, which of the following roles
must they have?
A.User
B.Manager
C.Creator
D.Administrator
Answer:A

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NO.16 To support Portal Search Center in a portal clustered environment, which of the following must be
completed?
A.Install the cluster search portlet on all servers in the cluster
B.Configure each system in the cluster to access a shared file directory
C.Configure each server to utilize a central LDAP source with caching enabled
D.Install and configure search for remote search service on an IBM WebSphere Application Server node
that is not part of the IBM WebSphere Portal cluster
Answer:D

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NO.17 What steps are required to install and activate a portlet running as a WSRP service?
A.Install the portlet using the WebSphere Portal Administration page or xmlaccess and run
/ConfigEngine/ConfigEngine.[bat|sh] activate-portlets
B.Install the portlet using the WebSphere Portal Administration page or xmlaccess and run
/ConfigEngine/ConfigEngine.[bat|sh] activate-wsrp-portlets
C.WebSphere Portal does not support WSRP
D.Install the portlet using the WebSphere Portal Administration page or xmlaccess and activate the portlet
via the Portlet administration portlet
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which of the following describes a scenario that is a good fit for WebSphere Portal??
A.Organization needs a desktop application with collaboration capabilities
B.Organization needs a website that consists largely of static content
C.Organization needs a website to aggregate content, and various applications
D.Organization needs a mobile application that integrates with its order entry system
Answer:C

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NO.19 What is the key technology that enables Client Side Aggregation to function differently than Server Side
Aggregation?
A.Javascript
B.JSTL
C.XML
D.REST services
Answer:A

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NO.20 Which of the following statements correctly describes how WebSphere Portal's functionality is
implemented on the WebSphere Application Server?
A.WebSphere Portal is deployed as a stand-alone Java application using WebSphere Application Server
client libraries.
B.WebSphere Portal is deployed as an Enterprise Application on the WebSphere Application Server
C.WebSphere Portal is a stand-alone web server framework and is not related to WebSphere Application
Server
D.WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's Portlet Container
Answer:B

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NO.21 Instead of manually transferring the WebSphere Portal database to a remote database server, what
tool can be used to help facilitate this process?
A.The WebSphere Portal Configuration Wizard
B.The WebSphere Portal installer allows a remote database to be used when selecting production
environment in the installation type dialog
C.The WebSphere Portal Database Configuration Wizard
D.The manual method is the only way to transfer data to a remote database server
Answer:A

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NO.22 After installing a WebSphere Portal v6.1 server as a primary server, which of the following needs to be
done in order to add the primary portal server node to a WebSphere Network Deployment cluster?
A.Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Network Deployment cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and setup the cluster
B.Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Network Deployment cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and setup the cluster
C.Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Network Deployment cell, create the cluster
using WebSphere Network Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to setup
the cluster
D.Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Network Deployment cell, create the
cluster using WebSphere Network Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to
setup the cluster
Answer:B

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NO.23 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company. If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A.Dynamic Cache and a stand-alone Portal server with disaster recovery
B.An Authentication and Authorization solution, A load balancing solution, a Portal cluster with HTTP
servers handling static content, and clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C.A Portal Cluster, Stepup Authentication, Network-Attached Storage devices
D.An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a Portal cluster
Answer:B

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NO.24 With regards to the Site Management feature, which of the following statements is true?
A.Publishing pages from a source to a target server must happen over an SSL-enabled port.
B.Pages must have custom unique names assigned, but the source and target servers do not require
custom unique names.
C.A single server may not act as a source server for one publishing task and a target server for another
publishing task.
D.Pages may be reviewed on the target server prior to being promoted to be visible to the entire audience
of desired users.
Answer:D

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NO.25 WebSphere Portal generates common names that consist of a user's first name followed by the last
name. Scott needs to change this order so that the user's last name is followed by the first name. How
does he make this change?
A.Change the common name order in the User Administration portlet on the Users and Groups page
B.You can not modify the way WebSphere Portal generates common names.
C.Reverse the parameter order for store.puma.default.puma.commonname for the Puma Store Service
D.Reverse the parameter order for store.puma_default.puma.commonname for the Puma Store Service
Answer:D

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NO.26 Which tab of the Theme Customizer portlet allows an administrator to add search controls to the theme?
A.Page
B.Banner
C.Navigation
D.Search
Answer:A

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NO.27 A portlet is available to multiple virtual portals. However, you do not wish the marketing team virtual
portal to utilize this portlet. Which of the following offers the ability to restrict the portlet from the marketing
team virtual portal users?
A.Portal Access Control
B.Portlet Security Control
C.Virtual Portal Restriction
D.Websphere Member Manager
Answer:A

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NO.28 John is administering a WSRP Producer portal in which he doesn want the content of a consumed
portlet to be cached. What value should he set for expiration in the portlet definition?
A.-1
B.0
C.nocache
D.always
Answer:B

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NO.29 Portlet wires can be created across which of the following two types of portlets?
A.JSR 168 and JSR 286
B.JSR 168 and IBM API
C.JSR 286 and IBM API
D.None of the above
Answer:A

IBM   LOT-955   LOT-955   LOT-955

NO.30 When creating a two-node vertical cluster, what must be done after creating the vertical cluster
member?
A.The cluster member must be added to the appropriate portal cluster
B.The new cluster member must be initialized using the ConfigEngine task
config-initialize-new-cluster-member
C.Server scoped resources must been cleaned up on the new cluster member using the ConfigEngine
task cluster-node-config-vertical-cluster-setup
D.Server-scoped resources must be copied from the primary cluster member using the WebSphere
Admin Console
Answer:C

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