2014年9月30日星期二

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Exam Code: C2010-570
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Exam Code: A2030-283
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NO.1 What is a valid integration strategy to an existing IBM endpoint security solution when IBM
Tivoli Service Automation Manager (TSAM) is used to create an Infrastructure as a Service cloud?
A. TSAM interacts with the hypervisor to trigger the installation of end point management
capabilities in the cloud.
B. Install an agent using its software stack installation capability. The endpoint solution will handle
the rest of the interaction.
C. TSAM will provision an instance of the existing endpoint security solution so that the newly
provisioned virtual machines can be related to the endpoint management domain.
D. Define virtual machine templates that have the required software already installed. Then TSAM
will orchestrate the interaction between the virtual machines and the corresponding endpoint
security solution.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which cloud service model is most likely to use resource-based billing?
A. Platform as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which capability must be in place in order for a failed VM to automatically be replaced and
users avoid disruptions in service?
A. VM optimization
B. Solid state drives
C. Dynamic dashboard
D. Availability management
Answer: D

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NO.4 How can cloud computing improve service delivery?
A. By providing monthly or pay per usage billing models
B. By abstracting underlying hardware using virtualization
C. By enabling service providers to provide multi-instance solutions
D. By automating processes used to request and provision workloads
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the IBM Cloud Computing Reference Architecture V3 cloud enabled
data center adoption pattern?
A. To describe how to build a virtualized data center infrastructure
B. To describe how to build an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) in a private cloud
C. To describe how to use a public IaaS from a data center
D. To describe how to prepare a data center to deliver IaaS and Platform as a Service cloud services
to consumer users
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two reasons that cloud computing is a good runtime environment for Systems of
Engagement (SQE)? (Choose two.)
A. It is a secure environment to store credit card numbers.
B. Upfront capital investment is eliminated with cloud's pay per use billing.
C. Rapid resource scaling to respond to a sudden increase in engaged customers.
D. Cloud computing industry standards simplify integration between SOE and Systems of Record.
E. The automation provided by cloud computing is the foundation for a better customer
engagement.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 How does provisioning take place in a hybrid cloud environment?
A. A rule-based workflow is usually in place which determines the best location for the workload.
B. Workloads are always provisioned on the public cloud when the private cloud is out of capacity.
C. Workloads can be provisioned anywhere as long as the monitoring data can be integrated in a
single dashboard.
D. Hybrid cloud environments have dedicated resource pools for provisioning storage and compute
for each workload.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which delivery model does the cloud consumer have little or no control over the
implementation of services?
A. Platform as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2020-185
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Exam Code: P2090-032
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NO.1 In a traditional Hadoop stack, which of the following components provides data warehouse
infrastructure and allows SQL developers and business analysts to leverage their existing SQL skills?
A. Avro.
B. Hive.
C. Zookeeper.
D. Text analytics.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following options is CORRECT?
A. InfoSphere Streams submits queries to structured static data.
B. InfoSphere Streams submits queries to structured dynamic data.
C. InfoSphere Streams submits queries to unstructured dynamic data.
D. InfoSphere Streams submits dynamic data to pre-existing queries.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following options contain security enhancements available in InfoSphere
BigInsights (Choose two) ?
A. LDAP authentication
B. Secure file transfers through SFTP protocol.
C. Trusted Context.
D. Kerberos authentication protocol.
Answer: A, B

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NO.4 Hadoop environments are optimized for:
A. Processing transactions (random access).
B. Low latency data access.
C. Batch processing on large files.
D. Intensive calculation with little data.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following options is CORRECT?
A. InfoSphere Data Explorer provides powerful navigation capabilities across all the important
information stored exclusively into Hadoop Distributed File System in a single view. No other file
systems are supported.
B. InfoSphere Data Explorer is not able to mirror pre-existing security frameworks, therefore it
doesnt make use of industry-standard authentication and authorization processes already in place.
C. InfoSphere Data Explorer can find, extract and deliver content regardless of format or where it
resides.
D. InfoSphere Data Explorer uses a vector-based index for unique search and indexing flexibility.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following InfoSphere BigInsights features provides a vast library of
extractors enabling actionable insights from large amounts of native textual data?
A. Text Analytics.
B. Adaptive MapReduce.
C. General Parallel File System.
D. BigSheets.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud for Social Business Technical Mastery Test v4
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Exam Code: C2010-502
Exam Name: IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices V2.1 Implementation
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NO.1 When creating a Samsung SAFE Capability Profile what are two of the system security'
restrictions that can be set for SAFE compatible mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. disable Bluetooth
B. disable the microphone
C. enable encryption of internal storage
D. enable encryption of external storage
E. define the required maximum password length
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 An IBM Endpoint Manager administrator who is responsible for managing iOS mobile devices
needs to view a list of applications installed on a particular OS device. Where can this be done?
A. Mobile Device dashboard
B. iOS Device View dashboard
C. Single Device View dashboard
D. Enterprise Apps Management dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Management Extender for iOS devices opens a Command Port to listen for commands
received from the IBM Endpoint Manager server. What is the default port value?
A. 23
B. 443
C. 52311
D. 52315
Answer: D

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NO.4 An Android device cannot be enrolled with a message similar to: Received an invalid server
URL. What should be checked by the IBM Endpoint Manager administrator to identity the problem?
A. confirm the Trusted Service Provider is up and running
B. make sure the provided server name points to the enrollment server
C. make sure the provided URL points to the Trusted Service Provider URL
D. check if the maximum number of device has been reached for the enrollment server
Answer: B

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NO.5 An employee's corporate mobile device managed by IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) was stolen.
The device is accessing corporate data both using e-mail and VPN profiles. Which action can be
initiated by the EM console operator to protect access to corporate data?
A. run the action of task Device Wipe against the stolen device
B. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Corporate Device against the stolen device
C. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Android Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
D. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Apple iOS Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where would a device obtain an APK file during application installation once it has been
imported to the IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices? (Choose two.)
A. relay
B. App Store
C. Google Play
D. corporate intranet site
E. IBM Endpoint Manager server
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which mobile devices can only be managed using the Management Extender for Microsoft
Exchange?
A. AppleiOS4.xdevices
B. BlackBerry OS 10 devices
C. SAEE enabled Android devices
D. Microsoft Windows Mobile 5.x devices
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the recommended maximum number of iOS devices that should report to an iOS
management extender?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 5000
D. 10000
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2010-539
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NO.1 How is the Condition Expression Builder accessed?
A. select Condition Expression Builder from the Administration module menu
B. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application toolbar
C. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application details
view
D. select Condition Expression Builder from the Conditional Expression application Select
Action menu
Answer: C

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NO.2 What happens when the Rolling Appender reaches the file size limit?
A. The current file is deleted and a new file is created
B. The current file is renamed and a new file is created.
C. The new log statements overwrite the older log on the same file.
D. The current file is moved into the /maximo/logfile/archive directory and a new file is
created
Answer: B

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NO.3 A PDF needs to be added to Tivoli process automation engine. Where can this be
done.?
A. Manage Files Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
B. Manage Library Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
C. Manage Folders Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
D. Manage Documents Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
Answer: B

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NO.4 Where are attached document folders associated?
A. Documents application
B. any Single-Page application
C. System Configuration application
D. the application that allows attached documents
Answer: A

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NO.5 An item set is required to generate data records. What are two of the records? (Choose
two.)
A. People
B. Assets
C. Locations
D. Item Master
E. Organizations
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 Which two modifications can be made to the user interface of a selected application
using the
Application Designer? (Choose two.)
A. add values to a domain
B. add a tab to an application
C. add an attribute to an object
D. move a field within an application
E. change the data type of an attribute
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which property prints a stack trace for fetch results?
A. mxe.db.fetchStack
B. mxe.db.fetchResult
C. mxe.db.fetchStackLogLimit
D. mxe.db.fetchResultLogLimit
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is true related to applications and the Application Designer?
A. All modifications to applications must be performed with the Application Designer
B. The files necessary to display an application are stored In the MAXAPPFILES table in the
database.
C. The code of a control can be modified with the Application Designer when used in code
configuration
mode.
D. Every application has a presentation XML that contains the information required to build
the
application's user interface
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2040-410
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development B
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Exam Code: P2090-086
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Master Data Mgmt-PIM Technical Mastery v1 Exam
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NO.1 Which is a valid named facet area of the Application Layout control?
A. footerFacet
B. titleBarTabs
C. mastHeader
D. mainContent
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true for the Single Page Application control for use on a mobile XPage?
A. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is <xp:singlePageApp>.
B. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is <xc:singlePageApplication>.
C. The Single Page Application control is used only when the mobile XPage includes a single mobile
page.
D. There must be only one Single Page Application control as the container for all of the Application
Page controls on the mobile XPage.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding the Extension Library Tooltip control?
A. A developer is not allowed to place other data components in between the <xe:tooltip> start and
end tags.
B. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer must set
dynamicContent to true.
C. When the position property is set to auto, the tooltip calculates where it should display in
relation to the element on the page.
D. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer does need to set
dynamicContent to false.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Davis is concerned that the Extension Library REST Service is not secure. Which is a true
statement?
A. The Extension Library REST service does not honor IBM Notes Domino Readers fields.
B. Access to an Extension Library REST service cannot be accessed without authentication.
C. An Extension Library REST service control honors all native IBM Notes and Domino security
features.
D. An Extension Library REST service can be accessed without authentication regardless of the
database's access control list.
Answer: C

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NO.5 John added a Dynamic View Panel to the CustomersViews XPage to switch display to any one
of several views in the Customers application. He set the pageName property to the
CustomerDocument XPage to identify the XPage to open when a customer name is selected from
the displayed view in the Dynamic View Panel control. What must John do to have the selected
customer document open in read mode on the CustomerDocument XPage?
A. For the Dynamic View Panel, set the openDocAsReadonly to "true".
B. Nothing. The selected document in a Dynamic View Panel will by default open in read mode.
C. For the Domino Document data source on the CustomerDocument XPage set the
openDocAsReadonly to "true".
D. Code the onColumnClick event of the Dynamic View Panel control with the Open Page simple
action and set the target property to"openDocument".
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the Application Layout control?
A. The Application Layout control provides a consistent interface when added directly to each XPage
in an application.
B. To render properly, the Application Layout control must implement one of the oneuiv2.1 themes
or a theme that extends a oneuiv2.1 theme.
C. The Application Layout control includes a total of three facet areas for adding content (left, center
and right columns) and three bar areas foricons, titles, links and drop down menus.
D. When the Application Layout control is enabled for an application each XPage will include a left,
center and right column area with the samedimensions to provide a consistent user interface across
the application.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Michael has designed a mobile application with two mobile pages. For the first mobile page he
set the pageName property to "page1" and for the second mobile page he set the pageName
property to "page2". What server-side simple action can Michael add on the second page to
navigate the mobile application user to the first page when touched?
A. Open Page
B. Open Mobile Page
C. Move To Mobile Page
D. Move To Application Page
Answer: D

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NO.8 Tyler has designed a viewMobilePage to display a listing of customer names from the
CustomersByName view. During testing Tyler determined that to avoid scrolling he will need to
restrict the number of customer names displayed on the viewMobilePage to ten. How can he do this?
A. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xe:dataView> control.
B. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xp:viewPanel> control.
C. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xp:dominoView> control.
D. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xe:mobileView> control.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2010-538
Exam Name: Assess: 538 IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2040-412
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NO.1 What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an
environment where a single or multiple firewall(s) exist? (Choose two.)
A. Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B. Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C. The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D. Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E. If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 A customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in
a place with these restrictions:
The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows,
Linux, and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly.
Which statement is true in order to meet the customer's requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent
footprint.
B. ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C. The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D. The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous-only
monitoring for their operating systems.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate
monitoring agent? (Choose two.)
A. The applications to be monitored.
B. The firewalls in the company's network.
C. The size of the data warehouse database.
D. The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E. The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Answer: A,D

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5. According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the
maximum number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A. 500
B. 1500
C. 2500
D. 3500
Answer: B

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6. When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must
be configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxy Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E. Summarization and Pruning Agent
Answer: C,D

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7. Which protocol can an agent use to send messages to an event management system when the
agent is running in Autonomous mode?
A. XML
B. SSH
C. SOAP
D. SNMP
Answer: D

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8. An agentless monitoring server is installed with these active agentless monitor instance types
started: 2AIX, 2 Linux, 2 Solaris, 2 Windows.What is the maximum number of systems that can be
monitored?
A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000
Answer: C

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9. Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database?
(Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
F. IBM Informix
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 What information must be collected in order to plan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) implementation?
A. The location of the servers to be monitored.
B. Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C. The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D. How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?
Answer: C

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2014年9月29日星期一

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Exam Code: FM0-308
Exam Name: Developer Essentials for FileMaker 13
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NO.1 A table in a FileMaker 13 solution has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
-Validate data in this field only during data entry -Allow user to override during data entry -Require
not empty -Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported, No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the
error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 13? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but
not both.
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 Consider a FileMaker 13 solution with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which
two actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. Create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. Find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. Create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. Display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Which statement is true about a container field set to Store container data externally in
FileMaker 13?
A. Data will not be stored externally if the file is transferred to an iOS device and used via FileMaker
Go 13.
B. Externally stored container data will not be backed up by FileMaker Server 13 scheduled backup
routines.
C. When hosted on FileMaker Server, external container data must be stored in a subdirectory of
the database folder.
D. Externally stored container data will be embedded in the file when it is downloaded via the
Server Admin Console.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two formatting options can be controlled by a layout's theme? (Choose two.)
A. The anchoring / resizing settings for a tab control
B. Conditional formatting for a value in a number field
C. The text color of a button when tapped in FileMaker Go
D. The inner shadow of a portal that is In Focus in Browse mode
E. The background color of a record in List View when a mouse pointer hovers over it
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the Filter Portal Records feature in FileMaker Pro 13?
A. The portal filter formula must refer to at least one field in the immediately related table.
B. The feature requires one or more additional relationships to be added to the Relationships Graph.
C. The portal filter formula may not refer to any globally stored fields, summary fields, or unstored
calculation fields.
D. There can be one unique filter formula applied for each portal state (Normal State, In Focus,
Hover, or Pressed).
E. Aggregate functions (e.g., Sum, Count) based on the portal's relationship will not be affected by
the portal's filter formula.
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 13 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & " " & LastName
FirstName and LastName are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. A record is first created
B. Each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
C. A user selects the menu item Records> Relookup Field Contents
D. Any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. The FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding an NSX Edge gateway device configured with a DNS Server?
A. The NSX Edge will forward all DNS requests from virtual machines sent to it to the DNS Server.
B. The NSX Edge configuration will override the DNS Server configured by the NSX Manager.
C. The NSX Edge registers the DNS Server with the NSX Controller.
D. The NSX Edge periodically synchronizes its DNS tables with the primary DNS Server.
Answer: A

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NO.2 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
An NSX administrator has deployed the network shown in the diagram:
Based on the diagram, which statement describes a valid method for redirecting traffic around the
fault?
A. Building this topology using a layer 2 switched fabric with connectivity between the leafs would
allow traffic to be redirected around the fault to another leaf.
B. Building this topology using a layer 3 routed fabric with connectivity between the leafs would allow
traffic to be redirected around the fault to another leaf.
C. Building this topology using a layer 2 switched fabric with spanning tree will provide the quickest
path around the fault to another spine when connectivity is lost.
D. Building this topology using a layer 3 routed fabric will provide the quickest path around the fault
to another spine when connectivity is lost.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two statements are valid regarding vCloud Networking and Security (vCNS) and NSX?
(Choose two.)
A. Both vCNS and NSX support multiple hypervisor environments.
B. NSX provides support for multiple hypervisor environments, vCNS does not.
C. Both vCNS and NSX support dynamic routing protocols.
D. NSX supports dynamic routing protocols, vCNS does not.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 An administrator manages a TFTP server virtual machine that is connected to a Logical Switch
with a VNI of 7321. The TFTP server has been configured to use port 1069. An NSX Edge Service
Gateway is connected to VNI 7321 and has an uplink interface with access to the physical network.
Assume external users can reach the Service Gateway.
What should the administrator configure to ensure external connections to the TFTP server are
successful?
A. Create a DNAT rule with the original port of 69 and translated port of 1069.
B. Create a SNAT rule with the original port of 1069 and translated port of 69.
C. Create a SNAT rule with the original port of 69 and translated port of 1069.
D. Create a DNAT rule with the original port of 1069 and translated port of 69.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two are valid types of authentication for an OSPF area? (Choose two.)
A. Password authentication
B. MD5 authentication
C. SHA1 authentication
D. LDAP authentication
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which Endpoint service cannot be leveraged using Service Composer?
A. Antivirus
B. Data Security
C. Layer 2 Bridging
D. Network Introspection
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which NSX component provides the ability to provide East-West distributed routing for virtual
machines in different subnets without having to traverse the physical network?
A. NSX vSwitch
B. NSX Edge
C. NSX Controller
D. NSX Distributed Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.8 How many DHCP pools can be created on the NSX Edge?
A. 2,000
B. 5,000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
Answer: D

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Exam Code: VCP-550
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 Exam
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Exam Code: VDCD510
Exam Name: VMware Certified Advanced Professional - Datacenter DesignExam
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NO.1 You are the technical designer for a vSphere platform transformation project. After conducting
SME interviews and using various platform information-gathering methods, you have created a
high-level design document. This document specifies the following: Requirements: R1. The solution
must not have a single point of failure. R2. Production applications must not have an outage of
more than 10 seconds. R3. Data must be based in the UK. R4. There is a 7-year retention policy for
contracts. R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years'
growth. Spec of servers: Web 1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM, 100 GB storage App 1 vCPU, 4 GB RAM, 100 Gb
storage DB 2 vCPU, 16 GB RAM, 750 Gb storage At a late stage in the software development life
cycle of a production application developed in- house, an unfortunate issue was identified when the
application was deployed to the production vSphere cluster. The production core stacked switch has
capacity issues, and this is having a serious impact on all applications for which the switch is
providing network services. Within the test system, the application works as intended in the single
test VLAN and with a single-host configuration. Which of the following could be tried to help in this
situation, from a vSphere perspective? (Choose two)
A. Redevelop the application for a virtual platform
B. Place the application into a single-vApp network
C. Add DRS rules to keep network traffic within the same host, where possible
D. Configure network I/O control
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
If you limit the application traffic to a specific dedicated network (that is, a separate VLAN) and
using enforced DRS affinity rules, the application traffic will not traverse the ESXi host's physical
network interfaces. This will ensure that the impact of the application is minimized, while also
ensuring that the application itself is not limited. The application servers already have vCPU settings.
This suggests that the system has already being virtualized in both types of environments. Network
I/O control could be useful in the event of contention, but the role of a designer would be to plan to
prevent contention where possible;
other options would be more beneficial.
In addition, Requirement 5 specifies that the system should work with workloads over the next 3
years. Network I/O control would suggest contention very early in the platform history. Chapter 4,
NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
3. Based on the information in the high-level design extract for question 2, which type of data
store would be required?
A. VMFS
B. NFS
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Because fault tolerance would be the only VMware technology that would meet the technical
requirements, VMFS is the only choice here. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
4. A project requirement
A. must be achieved
B. can be set as aspirational but may never be achieved
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A project requirement is a specific deliverable that the business has said must be provided at the
end of a project. It must always be achieved. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
5. The vCenter database is powered off ungracefully, along with a three cluster nodes in a
separate cluster. Will the failed existing ESXi host nodes restart correctly using Auto Deploy?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Auto Deploy enables an untrained IT professional to increase capacity while ensuring
quality and consistency within a cluster. However, there is a dependency on the
vCenter server and Auto Deploy server roles at different times. In this case, the ESXi
hosts have already booted successfully. This means that all subsequent reboots will be
controlled using configuration from the Auto Deploy server, not vCenter. If the
vCenter database is impacted, the ESXi hosts will automatically restore. Even in the
event of no vCenter availability, hosts will use the last-known copy of a distributed
switch or the configured vSphere switch.
Chapter X, Putting it all together
6. A logical diagram shows vendor-specific information.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A logical diagram shows the high-level components of a design or platform.
It may include descriptions such as data flow and entity relationships. However, it does not show
specific vendors (such as Dell or HP).
Chapter 2, Creating the design
7. You are a VMware architect employed to design and build application environments and the
underlying platform for a software development company.
The company is using a "devops" approach and has engaged with you at the beginning of the first
planning meeting/pre-sprint.
The software has yet to be written. However, you have some high-level specifications that are
subject to change at each of the early meetings.
The is more logical for virtual machine sizing.
A. predictive sizing approach based on current software
B. adaptive sizing approach
Answer: B

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Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms:
adaptive and predictive. Both approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is
the best approach for each project. The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a
major advantage that virtualization technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual
machine to be created initially on a few metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget)
and scaled (that is, grown, not shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this
scaling can be performed hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications. The
predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must know
the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has been
deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
Chapter 5, Design Approaches
8. You are working on a hybrid cloud project, where production applications (yet to be fully
developed) are to be deployed. Which of the following is a project requirement?
A. The production data must be in the UK at all times.
B. The hosting partner provides sufficient resources without overcommitment to support
application load.
C. The hosting provider meets uptime expectations.
D. The development team provides the software on time.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and its
removal cannot be justified. Chapter 2, Definitions of Key Terms
9. Storage DRS is enabled by default.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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10. Based on the information in the high-level design extract from question 2, what storage
protocol is unsuitable?
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The requirements state that the application uptime requirements would not be met if using vSphere
HA alone. vSphere HA would
invoke a restart of guest virtual machines after at least 10 seconds. VMware fault tolerance would
meet the uptime
requirements; a failover would result in zero downtime of the application. This technology can be
used only with VMFS; therefore, NFS cannot be used in this design. Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical
and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
11. A logical design can contain which of the following? (Choose three)
A. BIOS settings
B. Data flow
C. Key component relationships
D. High-level diagrams
E. Server host names
Answer: B,C,D

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Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is high level in nature and is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered
12. A best practice can change over time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will
have limited best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based
recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more
potential success; therefore, best practices can change over time.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
13. When designing a storage platform, which of the following should be considered as part of
the overall design?
A. Capacity
B. I/O requirements of the applications to be supported
C. Disk latency tolerance
D. Growth rate
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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Explanation:
A storage platform logical design requires in-depth analysis of factors that can affect applications.In
the case of storage, aspects that relate to the physical layer-such as the amount of usable space
required for services;
the size, number, and speed of disks; and how fast the data is being produced-could have a
substantial impact to the storage platform. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
14. Only a software vendor develops a standard process or configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will have limited
best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best
practices may be recommended by non-vendor-related people. It is up to a designer to validate this
information rather than ignore it straightaway. Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
15. Which of the following vSphere cluster technologies would meet the application
requirements specified in the high-level design extract for question 2?
A. FT
B. HA
Answer: A

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Explanation:
vSphere HA would need to wait at least 10 seconds before a restart would be possible. This would
not meet requirements. In the event of a restart, it could be possible to be without the application
feed database for about 15 minutes. VMware FT would enable the service to be provided without
additional redevelopment. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

NO.2 Storage DRS can be enabled and can balance I/O levels based on
A. real-time stats
B. historical stats
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Storage DRS can balance I/O by using storage vMotion. This would be based on historical values for
a period of time. Storage DRS would make decisions based on these figures. If the system were
using realtime stats, the machines could potentially migrate a lot more. This could have an effect on
the latency figures for some systems. The larger historical sampling in storage DRS allows the system
to make a decision with limited risk of impacting I/O-unlike moving a virtual machine over and over
again. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

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Exam Code: ST0-250
Exam Name: Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment
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NO.1 How does Symantec DLP communicate with Symantec Messaging Gateway (SMG) to indicate
what type of incident (if any) is related to a given message?
A. Symantec DLP uses the ICAP protocol to indicate if a message is clean,or if it violated any defined
policies.
B. Symantec DLP will add information into the message that can be interpreted by SMG and then
send it to SMG via SMTP .
C. Symantec DLP will quarantine messages that violate established policies,blocking it from SMG.
D. Symantec DLP will use TLS to send a notification message to the SMG server for any content
violations.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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6. After a configurable period of time, a suspect virus is released from the Suspect Virus
Quarantine. What happens to it next?
A. An alert is sent to the email administrator.
B. The attachment is removed and the original message is delivered to the recipient.
C. It is rescanned.
D. It is moved to quarantine.
Answer: C

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7. What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A. Dynamic Data Cache
B. Directory Data Service
C. Active Directory
D. Domain Controller Interface (DCInterface)
Answer: B

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8. If recipient validation is configured properly, which SMTP response level is given to messages
that fail recipient validation queries at connect time?
A. 3xx - Service unavailable
B. 4xx - Temporary delivery failure
C. 5xx - Permanent delivery failure
D. 6xx - Rejected validation failure
Answer: C

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9. How should an administrator stop inbound mail using the command line interface (CLI)?
A. use mta-control
B. use mta-stop
C. use mail-control
D. use mail-stop
Answer: A

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10. Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts
via reports?
A. Spam and Unwanted Mail
B. Submissions
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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11. Which two statistics can the administrator view regarding the custom anti-spam rulesets?
(Select two.)
A. the "top-submitters" of missed spam or false positive detections
B. the "top submitters" of messages that are not valid and did not generate a custom rule
C. how many emails have been submitted for custom antispam rules
D. the effectiveness of the custom antispam rulesets compared to Symantec's rulesets
E. the top senders of messages detected by custon antispam rulesets
Answer: A,C

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12. What two actions can allowed end-users do to submit samples to Symantec and have custom
anti-spam rules created? (Select two.)
A. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client
B. flag messages in their web-based SMG quarantine page as being spam and submitting the results
C. forward spam samples to abuse@symantec.com with a subject of "MISSED SPAM"
D. move the message into the included "Junk E-mail" folder available in Outlook
E. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client available for Lotus Domino
Answer: A,B

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13. A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are
recognized by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure the same administrator email address across both control centers
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure both control centers with the same internal email hosts
Answer: A

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14. An organization would like to participate in the Symantec Probe Network without having to
manually create decoy email accounts. The organization wants to make sure that the addresses that
participate in the Symantec Probe Network are currently receiving email. Which directory data
source function should be enabled to help in this situation?
A. recipient validation
B. address resolution
C. SMTP authentication
D. LDAP routing
Answer: A

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15. What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5
appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. DVD-ROM drive listed on hardware compatibility list
C. valid license file
D. machine account created in Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.3 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5?
A. Store backup on local server
B. Store backup on a remote location using FTP
C. Encrypt local backup
D. Purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which directory data source function must be enabled to help prevent a directory harvest
attack?
A. Active Directory connector
B. Dynamic Data Sourcing
C. LDAP authentication
D. Recipient validation
Answer: D

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NO.5 Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 will be deployed to receive mail directly from the Internet.
In this situation, which option should be selected within the Inbound Mail Filtering - Accepted Hosts
step of the site setup wizard?
A. Enable MX lookup
B. Define a list of domains
C. Specify IP addresses/domains
D. Select all IP addresses
Answer: D

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