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Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 Implementation
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Exam Code: C4070-622
Exam Name: System z Business Resiliency Solution Selling
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Exam Code: C2010-571
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine V7.5 Implementation
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NO.1 Which of the following considered as an element of High Availability for the System z platform?
A. GRS STAR
B. Capacity Backup (CBU)
C. Sysplex Failure Management (SPM)
D. Modified Indirect Data Address Word (MIDAW) facility
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer is documenting their Disaster Recovery process, and is considering all aspects of
running the business.
The following elements have been identified as essential:
-Secondary data center location and equipment -Key responsibilities of critical business units
-Up-to-date emergency contact information for all staff
In addition to these elements, which personnel should be listed as essential to be actively engaged
in the event of a disaster?
A. Mid-level management
Storage administrators
Application development programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
B. System programmer(s)
Performance and capacity management team
Network administrator(s)
Operations analyst
C. Workload schedulers
System operator(s)
Storage administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery Manager
D. Database administrator(s)
System programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer's service level agreement has the following components and configuration
characteristics:
-RTO=24 hours -RPO=1 hour -Flash Copy to a single set of disks at a remote site -Tape backup once
per day
What would be the state of the data if a disaster occurred during a resynchronization process?
A. There would be some data loss, but the data would need to be resynchronized.
B. There would be some data loss, but RPO and RTO would support service level agreements.
C. The data would be unreliable and their RTO and RPQ would exceed service level agreements.
D. The data would be reliable with the tape backup, and support the RTO, but the RPO would
exceed service level agreements.
Answer: C

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4. When considering an environment with one zEnterprise server (CEO) and one instance of z/OS,
which of the following contributes to High Availability?
A. Parallel sysplex
B. Application failover
C. Processor Unit Sparing
D. Multiple copies of the data
Answer: C

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5. Which of the following are typically included as a part of the services component in any of the
GDPS family of products?
A. Project planning Local field support Installation assistance tools Web based training programs
B. Disaster recovery planning Development of test methodology Network implementation services
Remote implementation assistance
C. Availability planning Onsite education and training Configuration recommendations Installation
and customization assistance
D. Sizing tools TCO cost recovery tools Workload and batch analysis tools Capacity and performance
monitoring tools
Answer: C

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6. Which of the following should be included in a manufacturing customer's Business Resilience
plan?
A. Supply chain management procedure
B. Security badge replacement procedure
C. Process to record employee time cards
D. Procurement and capital acquisition processes
Answer: A

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7. A customer has an RTO of 1 to 2 hours, and an RPO of <10 seconds. The primary concerns are
to protect against a regional failure and the cost of the solution. Which of the following supports
these requirements?
A. GDPS/XRC
B. GDPSMZGM
C. GDPS/PPRC
D. GDPS/Active Active
Answer: A

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NO.1 What product makes it easy to build Scorecards and Dashboards?
A. cxReveal
B. cxResults
C. cxView
D. cxVerify
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does a Hit Attribute look for?
A. Specific text strings that can be found within the Request and Response buffer.
B. A trait or component of a session.
C. Data saved in an event
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a Report Template?
A. A framework from which you can build robust Dashboards, Scorecards, or Reports
B. Proactive notifications of changes in Event levels.
C. A way to segment Event Data.
D. Basic interface to replay a session
Answer: A

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NO.4 A Count Event could be used to record any of the following EXCEPT:
A. The abandoned cart amount
B. How many customers logged in
C. How frequently visitors see an out of stock message
D. How many times an error code is displayed
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a best practice for creating Process Scorecards:
A. Only use steps from the main process flow
B. When you first deploy a new Process Scorecard, the grading should reflect the most stringent
goals of your company.
C. You should only use compound sequence Events for all process steps
D. Your process steps should include any possible step that the visitor could take to complete the
process
Answer: A

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NO.6 When Events fire, what happens:
A. A counter is incremented that tracks the occurrence of the Event for Reports
B. An Event value can be set and saved in the session data
C. Dimension values can be set and saved in the session data
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM Systems Networking Technical Support V1
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Exam Code: C2010-599
Exam Name: IBM Storage Productivity Center V5.1 Implementation
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NO.1 A customer named Your Company is looking for a new 4-way server with 875 GB internal storage to run
Oracle 91. A competitor presented the customer with a solution that includes Dell PowerEdge 6650. The
xSeries Sales Specialist presented the customer with the IBM Eserver x365. Which of the following
should the xSeries Sales Specialist emphasize as an advantage over the competitor's solution?
A. Easy deployment tools
B. Support for internal tape drive
C. Chipkill memory and Hot Spare Memory
D. Ability to hold six internal hard drives
Answer: D

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NO.2 To best ensure high customer satisfaction and repeat business, the xService Sales Specialist should
stay involved with the customer through which of the following phases of a server deployment?
A. Production Cut-over
B. Hardware Installation
C. Customer Acceptance
D. System Test
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is the best starting point to recommend to a customer who is interested in
attending education regarding the design, architectures, features, and functions of IBM eSserver xSeries
server?
A. IBM Director Workshop
B. Servicing IBM eServer xSeries Servers
C. IBM eServer xSeries technical Principles
D. Microsoft windows 2000 installation and Performance
Answer: C

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NO.4 A new customer is still unsure about the recent decision they made to go with IBM. The customer did
not have many issues with previous suppliers and knew exactly when and where to go for a service or
support issue. Which of the following should
the xSeries Sales Specialist do early in the implementation cycle to address the customer's uncertainty?
A. Create and present a customer Support plan to the customer
B. Make sure the customer is aware of IBM's electronic customer support options.
C. Provide a home phone number in the event they need someone immediately for a hardware or
technical issue.
D. Provide the appropriate IBM support phone number in the event they need assistance with a service or
technical issue.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Upon placing an order for a customer, an xSeries Sales Specialist finds out that there is an issue with
delivery lead time. Which of the following does the Sales Specialist need to Know in order to escalate with
IBM supply management?
A. SAP number for the order
B. Customer purchase order number
C. Business partner invoice number
D. The serial numbers of the server in QUESTION NO:
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer named Your Company is reluctant to pursue a 16-way IBM eServer x445 solution because
the server does not look like a "mainframe" The Xseries Sales
Specialist believes the customer may be entertaing another vendor. Who among the following could that
competitor be?
A. HPQ
B. Sun
C. Dell
D. Unisys
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer named Your Company uses BMC Patrol to manage all the servers in their data center. They
have approached the xSeries Sales Specialist about purchasing some IBM eServer xSeries servers for a
new project. The customer has heard about the IBM Director, but is concerned that this will produce
additional administrative overhead. Which of the following statements will be most useful in addressing
the customer's concern?
A. BMC Patrol is an IBM ServerProven product.
B. A bmc Patrol module is available for IBM Director.
C. The IBM Director Console can be run on the BMC Patrol Server.
D. An upward integration module for BMC Patol is available with IBM Director
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer named Your Company has invited competitive vendors to discuss a new server farm for an
expanding area of their business. The customer is considering a variety of server types. Including multiple
processor and blade servers. In addition, the new server farm will consist of NAS servers, fiber-based
storage and fiber-based tape devices. Which TWO of the following are reasons for choosing an IBM
solution over the competitors' solutions?
A. Light based diagnostics on servers is exclusive to IBM.
B. IBM is the only vendor that provides Systems Management.
C. Different Service Level Agreements are an exclusive offering from IBM.
D. The IBM Totalstorage portfolio includes NAS, SAN storage and SAN networking products.
E. The IBM server portfolio consists of multiple processor options in tower and rack form factors.
Answer: D,E

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NO.1 A mobile application developer is required to link a local JSONStore to synchronize with a
Worklight Adapter. To do so, to which function would the application developer need to specify the
adapter option?
A. WL.JSONStore.init()
B. WL.JSONStore.push()
C. WL.JSONStore.load()
D. WL.JSONStore.getPushRequired()
Answer: A

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NO.2 A mobile application developer has created a Worklight adapter, largeData, which returns a
large amount of data. Due to network latency, the application developer would like to compress the
data returned. How can the application developer compress the data sent between the mobile
device and the Worklight server? The developer can set compressResponse to true in the:
A. largeData.xml file.
B. largeData-impl.js file.
C. invokeProcedure function.
D. application-descriptor.xml file.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A mobile application developer has created an application for indoor shopping mall customers.
The application needs to distinguish shopping areas from eating areas inside the mall using WiFi.
How can the application developer do this?
A. Use WL.Device.getContext() to return the current geofence.
B. Use a DwellInside trigger to determine which area the user is in.
C. Use a PositionChange trigger to signal when the user moves into a different area.
D. Use the WL.Device.Geo.Profiles API to set the acquisition policy to acquire information from
bluetooth, NFC, and WiFi broadcasts.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A mobile application developer is asked to work on a mobile project and build Web resources
such as HTML, CSS and JavaScript that will later be packaged to complete the application by another
developer. What application type should be selected by the application developer in Worklight
Studio to accomplish this?
A. Inner Application
B. Shell Component
C. Native Application
D. Hybrid Application
Answer: A

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NO.5 A mobile application developer has written a hybrid android app and has enabled Push
Notifications for it. On subscribing to the eventsource with userId "TestUser", the userID that is
persisted in the database is "3266532456798262364265" instead of "TestUser". What is the cause?
A security test is missing from the:
A. adapter methods.
B. adapter methods and the application.
C. application-descriptor.xml.
D. WL.Server.createEventSource function.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A mobile application developer has written a Cordova plug-in for an application. The
developer would like to now test its functionality. To do so, what must the application developer
configure in the Worklight project? Declare the:
A. plug-in name in config.xml.
B. plug-in name in initOptions.js.
C. plug-in name in the HEAD element of the application's .html file.
D. .java class file name in AndroidManifest.xml.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A mobile application developer wishes to mock up an application quickly using the built in
Worklight Screen Templates for Dojo. How can the developer add a screen template to an existing
Dojo project? From the Worklight Studio Design view:
A. select File -> New -> Web Page and choose a template
B. right click in the Outline pane, select Add and choose a template
C. right click in the Mobile Navigation pane, select Add and choose a template
D. right click on the <app name> folder, select New -> Web Page and choose a template
Answer: C

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NO.8 A mobile application developer needs to deploy a mobile application developed using IBM
Worklight Studio to a remote server. To do so, which mandatory file must be present on the remote
server?
A. derby.jar
B. worklight-jee-library.jar
C. worklight-extension-api.jar
D. com.ibm.ws.wim.core.jar
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2010-651
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying Maximo Asset Management Solutions V3
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Exam Code: C2090-619
Exam Name: IBM Informix 12.10 System Administrator
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Exam Code: C2010-652
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Fundamentals
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NO.1 When creating a new PM, where are detailed task steps defined?
A. on the route
B. inajobplan
C. inthePMplans
D. onthemasterPM
Answer: B

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NO.2 Across IBM Maximo Asset Management implementations, what is least likely to be
implemented at
the completion of the project (go-live date)?
A. inventory
B. work order
C. labor planning
D. preventive maintenance
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which actions are required to perform a gap analysis?
A. ldenti1i the capabilities of the software product and relate these capabilities to the executable
high-level business process steps.
B. Compare the current system with potential new standard software systems, and document and
analyze the gaps between these systems.
C. Identify all gaps between the current and future business processes, and document the steps to
resolve the differences between these processes.
D. Compare the to-be business processes with the reference processes from the standard
software system, and document and analyze the differences.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is used to compare the estimate versus actual cost for a job?
A. The project cost accounting application
B. Job plan resources and actual resources
C. Work plan resources and actual resources
D. GL debit accounts and GL credit accounts
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which IBM Tivoli product automates license tracking in order to meet compliance
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Service Provider
B. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which item describes the basic concept of Total Productive Maintenance which is a
maintenance
methodology that a customer may subscribe to?
A. fix it before it breaks
B. all assets in use, generating value
C. all maintenance personnel in use, productively
D. zero error, zero work-related accidents, and zero loss
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a possible line type value on a purchase order line?
A. Asset
B. Material
C. Inventory
D. Standard Tool
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has many assets that they would like to record and create master preventive maintenance records for in IBM Maximo Asset Management (Maximo). Which type of record, when purchasing, would create these assets in Maximo?
A. Rotating Items
B. Rotating Assets
C. Non-rotating Items
D. Non-rotating Assets
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2010-024
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Level 2 Support Tools and Processes
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Exam Code: C2010-656
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Service Request Management Implementation
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Exam Code: C4040-225
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER7 and AIX & Linux Technical Sales Skills - v2
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NO.1 What PowerSCfeature provides a mechanism to prevent an attacker, who has gained
unauthorized access to an LPARI from deleting evidence records of the source of intrusion?
A. Trusted Audit
B. Trusted Firewall
C. Trusted Logging
D. Trusted Surveyor
Answer: C

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NO.2 What capability does Role Based Access Control (RBAC) provide to users?
A. Assume a default role at login
B. Control access to system logs
C. Perform system operations associated with roles
D. Assume the role of root under certain circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.3 A prospective client is interested in running SAP on Linux. Which of the following would make
Linux on Power a better solution than Linux on x86?
A. ISV support
B. Memory Chipkill
C. Threads per core
D. Kernel optimization
Answer: C

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NO.4 How is SuSe Linux Enterprise Server 11 licensed on Power Systems servers?
A. Per core
B. Per server
C. Per socket
D. Per instance
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer wants to mix different applications in one LPAR to reduce administration costs.
The applications must be prioritized with high and low workload.
What is the most simple way to support these requirements?
A. WPAR
B. Versioned LPAR
C. WPAR Manager
D. AIX Profile Manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 How is AIX licensing and upgrade entitlement packaged?
A. AIX SWMA
B. AIX Warranty
C. AIX Service Pack
D. AIX Basic License
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following products can move an application between servers while the
application is running?
A. Application Manager
B. AIX Standard Edition
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. Workload Partition Manager
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BCABA
Exam Name: Board Certified Assistant Behavior Analyst
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NO.1 A person engages in target behaviors in environments different from the original training
environment. This is a demonstration of
A. stimulus generalization.
B. response generalization.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. response induction.
Answer: A

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NO.2 If a client exhibits problem behaviors throughout the day and evenings regardless of what is
going on in the environment and what activities he/she is participating in, which would be the BEST
way to reduce the high frequency and increase latency?
A. Use a differential reinforcement procedure for the absence of problem behaviors for an amount
of time with a high magnitude reinforcer as a reward.
B. Use a high magnitude punishment procedure every time he/she exhibits the problem behavior.
C. Use a low magnitude punishment procedure every time he/she exhibits the problem behavior.
D. Use a fixed ratio reinforcer every time he/she exhibits appropriate behavior.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Terry notices that his heart rate increases and he begins to sweat when he enters the
dentist's office because the office is associated with painful, unpleasant dental work. He also is
reluctant to make appointments and seems to want to do anything else but go to the dentist. His
physical symptoms are an example oF.
A. operant behavior.
B. respondent behavior.
C. escape conditioning.
D. aversive conditioning.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Trials to criterion refers to a measure of
A. fluency.
B. performance.
C. rate of correct responding.
D. interobserver agreement.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A reversal design does NOT permit an evaluation of an intervention for:
A. compliance.
B. reading acquisition.
C. self-injury.
D. stereotypy.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Deane's friend takes her to the mall every week. She frequently hugs people whom she does
not know. The behavior analyst wants to use an intervention that includes reinforcement of
appropriate behavior when Deane does something other than hugging. Which intervention would
be MOST appropriate?
A. Teach her friend to provide reinforcement when Deane greets others appropriately.
B. The behavior analyst goes to the mall and gives tokens to Deane for appropriate interactions.
C. Teach her friend to hug Deane when she appropriately interacts with others.
D. Teach her friend to provide tokens for appropriate interactions.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Before recruitment of participants for a research study begins, a behavior analyst needs to:
A. obtain consent from participant(s) or legal guardian(s) if necessary.
B. obtain institutional review board approval or equivalent (e.g., an ethics committee).
C. inform participants of their ability to withdraw from the study.
D. inform participants about ethical requirements and experimental procedures.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The systematic presentation and examination of information in an ABC format, where A
represents the antecedent stimuli, B represents the behavior, and C represents the consequences
following the behavior, is calleD.
A. a consequence analysis.
B. a functional analysis.
C. a response analysis.
D. a descriptive assessment.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BPM-001
Exam Name: Business Process Manager (BPM)
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Exam Code: CSM-001
Exam Name: Certified Scrum Master (CSM)
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NO.1 When examining the role of content in your process, you need to determine if your process is
________________
A. complex
B. process oriented
C. document-driven
D. volume-driven
Answer: C

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NO.2 Six Sigma strives to have a process operate at 99% efficiency.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Six Sigma approach focuses on? (Choose two.)
A. Measurable, quantifiable, stable results
B. Reducing variation in processes and products
C. Bring transparency in business ethics
D. Waste reduction in production system
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Pam is gathering information to design a process. She will consider which of the following
concepts?
A. Mind mapping
B. Role of content
C. Brainstorming
D. RAP model
Answer: B

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NO.5 ______________ are designed to control, define, standardize, and structure how procedures
are carried out within an organization.
A. Business rules
B. Business analysis
C. Business ethics
D. Business strategy
Answer: A

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NO.6 The diamond symbol in flowchart process mapping means
A. A decision is to be made
B. Another step in the process
C. Indicates direction
D. Indicates the start of the process
Answer: A

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NO.7 Collect Data stage is all about getting the information you need to make the argument for a
new process. This information can be acquired through a variety of methods, such as: (Choose two)
A. Focus groups
B. Group meetings
C. Interviews
D. Blogs
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 ______________helps organizations leverage processes to achieve their goals and be
successful.
A. Pert Chart
B. Statement of work (SOW)
C. Flow chart
D. Business process management
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CMQ-OE
Exam Name: Certified Manager of Quality/Organizational Excellence Exam
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NO.1 A more accurate accounting of the costs to produce a product can be achieved with:
A. Traditional cost accounting methods
B. Activity-based costing
C. Correctly distinguishing between internal and external failure costs
D. Correctly differentiating between prevention and appraisal costs
Answer: B

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NO.2 Of the following core values and concepts, which would be the most critical to apply to a
newly mandated state emergency management agency?
I. Visionary leadership
II. Customer-driven excellence
III. Agility
IV. Focus on the future
V. Focus on results and creating value
VI. Management by fact
VII. Managing for innovation
A.I, III, V, VII
B.II, V, VI
C.I, III, IV, V, VI, VII
D.V, VI
Answer: C

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NO.3 A small chain of five retail stores has just completed its initial strategic planning and wishes to
determine the effectiveness of its plans for the first year. They should track and measure:
A. Results from action plans.
B. Frequency of application of the quality policy.
C. Attainment of the strategic objectives.
D. Organization goals.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Management's goal is to continually improve customer service and satisfaction. Their actions
include the following. Which of these actions is least likely to help achieve the goal?
A. Provide for positive reinforcement to employees who are trying to satisfy customers.
B. Encourage and support cooperation and conformance to quality standards amongst internal
customers.
C. Establish an employee suggestion box system.
D. Ensure that employees have the training, information, and physical things they need to do their
jobs well.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following best describes the differences between crossfunctional and matrix
organizations?
A. Cross-functionals deal with companywide issues, whereas matrices focus on specific projects.
B. Cross-functionals are often temporary, whereas matrices are permanent.
C. Cross-functionals deal with internal groups, whereas matrices deal with external groups.
D. Cross-functionals usually consist of personnel with technical skills, whereas matrices usually
consist of high-level functional executives.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A work team has identified three software packages that will help them dramatically improve
a process and needs to decide which to purchase. Each package has some of the same and some
different features and there are many different criteria that need to be used in making the decision.
Which of the following tools is likely to be most valuable for helping the team decide?
A. Priorities matrix
B. Tree diagram
C. Matrix diagram
D. Activity network diagram
Answer: A

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NO.7 Typical tools used as aids in selecting members for a process improvement team are:
A. DiSC and MBTI.
B. MBTI and process mapping.
C. Root cause analysis and fishbone chart.
D. Brainstorming and affinity diagram.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A facilitator notices that the team jumps to conclusions after only one or two members have
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The facilitator should:
A. Tell the team to have a nonbinding vote before beginning a discussion, which will make each
person's view apparent.
B. Ask the team to fill out a questionnaire rating themselves on effective group process.
C. Tell the quiet members they need to speak out.
D. Ask what the impact will be on the team if they don't adequately discuss issues.
Answer: D

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NO.1 What is the Onboard license usage based on?
A. Each user connected to the provisioning SSID uses 1 Onboard license.
B. Each user authenticated using the Onboard credential uses 1 Onboard license.
C. Each user provisioned using the Onboard process uses 1 Onboard license.
D. Each user that has the OnGuard agent downloaded uses 1 Onboard license.
E. Each user that downloads the Onboard application to their iOS device uses 1 Onboard license.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is true about the Endpoint Profiler? (Choose 2)
A. The Endpoint Profiler requires the Onboard license to be enabled.
B. The Endpoint Profiler uses DHCP fingerprinting for device categorization.
C. Data obtained from the Endpoint Profiler can be used in Enforcement Policy.
D. The Endpoint Profiler can only categorize laptops and desktops.
E. Endpoint Profiler requires a profiling license.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following methods can be used as collectors for device profiling? (Choose 2)
A. OnGuard agent
B. Active Directory Attributes
C. ActiveSync Plugin
D. Username and Password
E. Client's role on the controller
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 An employee provisions their personal smart phone using the Onboard process. In addition,
they have a corporate laptop given to them by IT that connects to the secure network. How many
licenses does the user consume?
A. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Onboard License.
B. 1 Policy Manager license, 1 Guest License.
C. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 1 Onboard License.
D. 2 Policy Manager licenses, 2 Onboard Licenses.
E. 1 Policy Manager license, 2 Guest licenses.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: they have 2000
devices that need to be onboarded, 2000 corporate devices running posture checks daily, and 500
different guest users each day authenticating using the web login feature.
Which of the following best describes the license mix that they need to purchase?
A. CP-HW-500, 2500 Clearpass Enterprise
B. CP-HW-5k, 2500 Clearpass Enterprise
C. CP-HW-5k,4500 Clearpass Enterprise
D. CP-HW-25k, 4500 Clearpass Enterprise
E. CP-HW-25k, 4000 Clearpass Enterprise
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: they have 3000
corporate laptops doing EAP-TLS authentication daily, 1000 personal smartphone devices that need
to be onboarded. The corporate laptops are required to pass a posture check before getting access
to the network.
Which of the following best describes the license mix that they need to purchase?
A. CP-HW-5k, 1000 Clearpass Enterprise
B. CP-HW-5k, 1000 Onboard, 3000 Onguard
C. CP-HW-25k,1000 Clearpass Enterprise
D. CP-HW-25k, 1000 Onboard, 3000 Onguard
E. CP-HW-25k, 3000 Onguard
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer would like to deploy ClearPass with the following objectives: they have between
2000 to 3000 corporate users that need to authenticate daily using EAP-TLS. They want to allow for
up to 1000 employee devices to be onboarded. They would also like to allow up to 100 different
guest users each day to authenticate using the web login feature.
Which of the following best describes the license mix that they need to purchase?
A. CP-HW-5k, 100 Onboard, 100 Guest.
B. CP-HW-500, 1000 Onboard, 100 Guest.
C. CP-HW-2k,1000 Onboard, 100 Guest.
D. CP-HW-5k, 2500 Enterprise.
E. CP-HW-5k, 1000 Enterprise.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the function of ClearPass Onboard?
A. Provide guest access for visitors to connect to the network
B. Process authentication requests based on policy services
C. Profile devices connecting to the network
D. Provision personal devices to securely connect to the network
E. To allow a windows machine to use machine authentication to access the network
Answer: D

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NO.1 How can a user tell if a read-only Wi-Fi profile has been pushed to the BlackBerry Smartphone
using the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. The Wi-Fi profile will have a lock icon next to it.
B. The Wi-Fi profile will have a briefcase icon next to it.
C. There is no way for a user to tell which profiles have been pushed.
D. The Wi-Fi profile cannot be deleted, and all fields are greyed out and cannot be edited.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When using the accessibility feature "Magnify Mode ", what action can be taken to quickly
remove the magnification?
A. Go to Option -> Accessibility and disable Magnify Mode
B. Pinch with two fingers on the screen to zoom out.
C. Swipe down from the top of the screen with two fingers.
D. Click the center button between the volume keys.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is an essential aid to investigate a problem experienced on a BlackBerry
10 (BB10) smartphone when being reported to BlackBerry?
A. Playbook
B. BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) server name
C. The location of the device
D. The time of occurrence and the device logs
Answer: D

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NO.4 All users are no longer able to activate using their Username. Activation Password and SRP .
However they are able to use a Fully Qualified Domain Name of the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS).
What setting in BlackBerry Administration Service (BAS) would be the most likely cause of this issue?
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher is configured with an Enterprise Proxy
B. Allow activation over BlackBerry infrastructure set to yes
C. Allow activation information to be emailed is set to no
D. Proxy profile is configured to use VPN incorrectly
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the two perimeters set when a smartphone/Tablet is activated on a BlackBerry
Device Service (BDS)?
A. Enterprise and Home
B. Work and Personal
C. Server and Personal
D. Work and Home
Answer: B

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NO.6 Performing a Security Wipe will delete which of the following?
A. All PIM information, pictures or videos but not downloaded applications
B. All data on the device including any pictures or videos, and downloaded applications
C. All data from the work perimeter
D. If work perimeter does not exist then all data but not downloaded applications
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following resources would enable a user who has lost a device to ensure that
their contact information is displayed on their BlackBerry?
A. BlackBerry Protect
B. BlackBerry Lost and Found
C. App World
D. BlackBerry Help
Answer: A

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NO.8 Where are notifications that an application has finished downloading from BlackBerry World
enabled?
A. Settings > Notifications > Other Applications > BlackBerry World > Download Notifications
B. Settings > Notifications > BlackBerry World > Download Notifications
C. BlackBerry World > Settings > General Settings > Download Notifications
D. BlackBerry World > Settings > Notifications > Download Notifications
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the functionality of an aggregation node in a calculation view?(Choose two)
A. It calculates the sum, minimum, or maximum values for selected columns
B. It provides grouping of filter criteria
C. It provides deeper control over which columns are totaled
D. It determines the output structure of the calculation view
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which tasks can you perform with the data provisioning view in the SAP HANA studio?(Choose
two)
A. Start replication of tables
B. Filter replicated data
C. Apply data transformations
D. Suspend replication of tables
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which of the following is included in a rapid deployment solution (RDS) implemented on SAP
HANA?(Choose three)
A. Conversion of all BEx queries to analytic views
B. Guides and educational material
C. A mix of onsite and offsite consulting
D. The SAP HANA database license
E. SAP best practices and templates
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 You want to enable the end user to decide at runtime how to restrict the data in an
information model.
Which of the following objects do you use?
A. Input parameter
B. Filter
C. Restricted measure
D. Variable
Answer: D

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NO.5 What must you do to enable currency conversions with a fixed currency in an analytic view?
A. Set the Enable for Conversion option
B. Create a measure with the measure type Simple
C. Base the target currency on a currency column
D. Create the target currency using an input parameter
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following are characteristics of an operational data mart based on SAP
HANA?(Choose two)
A. It is based on analytic denormalized data models
B. It uses real-time replication of time-critical data
C. It runs directly on top of the operational data
D. It persists transformed data
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which type of connection does Direct Extractor Connection (DXC) use to transfer data to SAP
HANA?
A. RFC connection
B. Secondary database connection
C. http connection
D. ODBC connection
Answer: C

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NO.8 You would like to authorize a user to select and delete data from a specific column table. The
user should also be able to grant this authorization to other users.
Which privilege do you need to implement?
A. Analytic privilege
B. System privilege
C. Package privilege
D. Object privilege
Answer: D

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