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Exam Code: A2040-402
Exam Name: Assessment: Administering IBM Connections 4.0
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Exam Code: M2110-670
Exam Name: IBM SVP Primary Support Provider Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 What is the recommended IBM technology that may be used to view and control remote
environments in order to troubleshoot an issue?
A. Same time
B. Fix Central
C. Assist On-Site
D. Electronic Service Request
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/support/assistonsite/

NO.2 What steps should a Primary Support Provider take before escalating an issue to IBM
Customer Support1?
A. Ask the customer to download product documentation
B. Forward emails from the customer to IBM Customer Support
C. Run IBM Support Assistant Lite, get all MustGather information, search the IBM Knowledge Base
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 When should a Primary Support Provider use the telephone to communicate with a customer
that has logged a support call with them?
A. When the customer has to be told bad news
B. When the customer is in a different time zone
C. When the message includes links to documentation
D. When the message has to be conveyed to more than one person
Answer: A

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NO.4 When troubleshooting, it is imperative to gather log files from what time period?
A. After the issue occurred
B. Before the issue occurred
C. When the issued occurred
D. One month before and one month after the issue occurred
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is required of the customer when a Primary Support Provider wishes to escalate an issue
to IBM Customer Support?
A. The customer must open a Problem Management Report (PMR) through the Service Request (SR)
Portal.
B. The customer must grant IBM Customer Support access to their systems so they can upgrade
their software.
C. There is no customer requirement, the Primary Support Provider will escalate the issue to IBM
Customer Support
D. The customer must install the latest version and patches of the software before IBM Customer
Support can be engaged.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which party owns the responsibility of communicating a Problem Management Record (PMR)
solution to the end customer?
A. The Primary Support Provider will provide the final solution to the customer because they own
the relationship with the customer
B. Since they are most familiar with the code, the IBM Developer will provide the final solution to
the customer
C. The IBM Customer Support engineer will provide the final solution to the customer, because they
own the relationship with the customer.
D. Because both parties have a case open on the issue, the Primary Support Provider and the IBM
Customer Support engineer are required to jointly present the final solution to the customer
Answer: A

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf(slide 11)

NO.7 Which upload protocols are supported by the ECuRep Tool?
A. SCP , TCP , FTP and Secure FTP
B. TCP , UUCP , HTTP and HTTPS
C. E-mail, HTTP and HTTPS, FTP and Secure FTP
D. E-mail, UUCP , SCP , TCP
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-05.ibm.com/de/support/ecurep/send.html

NO.8 Which of these best describes a Primary Support Provider's Level 1 Customer Support
responsibilities?
A. Taking the first support call from their customer and escalating it to IBM
B. Logging all calls in a call tracking system and utilizing the tools available to troubleshoot the issue.
C. Testing new software versions of IBM products and communicating the release of said software
to customers that have purchased the software from IBM.
D. Incorporating and testing any program fix provided by IBM Customer Support (as appropriate),
and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass, circumvention, or other notice of
restriction to the customer.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration
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Exam Code: P2140-021
Exam Name: IBM Rational Collaborative Lifecycle Management for IT Technical Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which CLM capability does the Analyst role have full read/write access to?
A. software configuration management
B. test management
C. automation
D. requirements management
Answer: D

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NO.2 A project lead wants to ensure that the whole team understands the overall scope of
the project.
Which capability of IBM Rational CLM should the sales specialist highlight?
A. It provides a single plan that spans requirements, development, and testing.
B. It fully integrates project planning with execution.
C. It emails copies of the plan to all team members.
D. It subjects any changes in the plan to the entire team approval.It subjects any changes in
the plan to
the entire team approval.
Answer: A

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NO.3 IBM Rational Requirements Composer version 3.0.1 and later supports integration with
which two
products? (Choose two.)
A. Rational Software Architect Design Manager
B. Rational ClearQuest
C. Rational RequisitePro
D. Rational DOORS
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which of the five imperatives best helps each team member understand what the rest
of the team is
doing and how it impacts the overall workload?
A. in-context collaboration
B. real-time planning
C. lifecycle traceability
D. continuous improvement
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a major advantage of deploying IBM Rational CLM in a single server setup?
A. full Single Sign-On (SSO) support
B. a single LDAP server to control authentication
C. simplified linking of work items
D. easier to schedule maintenance windows
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a major benefit of real-time planning in IBM Rational CLM?
A. It captures best practices and reuses them across teams.
B. It allows everyone to participate in keeping the plan accurate.
C. It encourages incremental and breakthrough improvements.
D. It clearly separates planning from execution.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Practitioners are reluctant to participate in planning activities. Which IBM Rational CLM
capability
should the sales specialist suggest?
A. Team members can update status in the course of their daily work.
B. Teams are regularly reminded to provide status updates.
C. Team members who do not participate are absent in the Planned Time view.
D. Team leaders can require members to approve the plan.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which kind of artifact should a stakeholder create in order to visually model the
interaction of a
customer without focusing on the design?
A. user interface sketch
B. business process diagram
C. work flow diagram
D. use case diagram
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2140-047
Exam Name: Rational System Architect: BPMN Emphasis
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NO.1 Which two System Architect functions can be used to copy selected diagrams and/or
data definitions
from one project encyclopedia into another? (Select two.)
A. Data Import
B. File Export/Import
C. Encyclopedia Merge
D. Encyclopedia Extract
E. Encyclopedia Transfer
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Which type of diagram models the ends and means of an organization's strategic plan?
A. Business Plan Diagram
B. Business Process Diagram
C. Functional Process Diagram
D. Enterprise Direction Diagram
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are three typical domains in an enterprise architecture? (Select three.)
A. source code
B. project plans
C. business processes
D. technology infrastructure
E. applications and information
Answer: CDE

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NO.4 Which type of diagram enables you to graphically model the goals and objectives of an
organization
along with the strategies and tactics devised to achieve those goals?
A. Business Concept Diagram
B. Business Process Diagram
C. Enterprise Direction Diagram
D. Business Process Hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement best describes the purpose of Business Process Modeling Notation
(BPMN)?
A. It provides a graphical notation for diagramming business processes.
B. It defines a standard format for determining the processes that take place within an
organization.
C. It describes a methodology for describing relationships between entities and their business
processes.
D. It provides a textual and graphical methodology for modeling the current and future state
of business
and communication processes.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three enterprise architecture frameworks are supported by Rational System
Architect? (Select
three.)
A. NAF
B. TAFIM
C. MODAF
D. DoDAF
E. AGATE
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 Which three categories of symbols are represented on Business Process Diagrams?
(Select three.)
A. Swimlanes
B. Stereotypes
C. Flow Objects
D. Decision Trees
E. Connecting Objects
Answer: ACE

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NO.8 Which basic BPMN model describes processes that are internal to a specific
organization?
A. Native
B. Private
C. Internal
D. Intrinsic
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2090-068
Exam Name: IBM Information Mgmt Informix Technical Mastery Test v3
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NO.1 Which Informix utility allows you to change the logging mode for one or more
databases?
A. oninit
B. ondblog
C. onmode
D. ondbmode
Answer: B

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NO.2 At the operating system level, what is the name of every Informix process?
A. informix
B. oninit
C. cpuvp
D. root
Answer: B

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B. AIO
C. MACH11
D. OBJ
Answer: B

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C. Applications requiring dedicated hardware as part of the solution.
D. High-transaction OLTP workloads.
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C. The ability to replicate data between different versions and editions of Informix.
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Answer: B

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Operator, what
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B. by Index
C. by Position
D. by Attribute
E. by Key
Answer: AC

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B. Mining Server
C. Client
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Answer: AC

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NO.3 What is meant by "Information as a Service"?
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B. extending the traditional data warehouse by providing business context layers to the data
C. accessing a traditional data warehouse with a Web-based application for the data
D. storing all analytical data in a multidimensional cube instead of a traditional data
warehouse
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two functions can the SQW tool perform for a data flow? (Choose two.)
A. business processes such as secure command and secure FTP
B. range partitioning for staging tables
C. filtering and sorting for operator properties such as table columns
D. operators for row compression, roll-in, and roll-out
E. parallel process execution
Answer: BC

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NO.5 Which statement is true about Rational Data Architect (RDA) integration with the
Design Studio for data
modeling?
A. Design Studio integrates both logical and physical data modeling capabilities from RDA.
B. The full RDA can be installed into the Design Studio platform for logical and physical data
modeling.
C. Design Studio includes the physical data modeling component to help you implement your
physical
model.
D. Design Studio is based on IBM Data Server Developer Workbench and a full set of RDA
components.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When using InfoSphere Warehouse, in which two occasions is it appropriate to run the
InfoSphere
Warehouse configuration tool? (Choose two.)
A. any time you need to do reverse engineering
B. immediately before installation
C. any time after installation to modify your configuration
D. immediately after installation
E. any time after a new user is added to the warehousing solution
Answer: CD

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NO.7 During which installation and configuration process can user groups be mapped to
each role?
A. the installation of InfoSphere Warehouse Server for the Administration node
B. the installation of InfoSphere Warehouse Server for Data node
C. the installation of WebSphere Application Server
D. the execution of the InfoSphere Warehouse Configuration Tool
Answer: D

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NO.8 A control flow requires the use of a variable that seldom changes after deployment.
Which phase should be considered?
A. EXECUTION_INSTANCE
B. DEPLOYMENT
C. DEPLOYMENT_PREP
D. RUNTIME
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2090-619
Exam Name: Assessment: Informix Server 12.10 Assessment
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Exam Code: C2040-910
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Deployment & Administration Update
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Exam Code: C2070-583
Exam Name: IBM Content Analytics and Search V2.2
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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT true regarding WebSpere Portal v7.0 and VMware
support?
A. VMware can only be used when WebSphere Portal v7.0 is not clustered.
B. VMware can be used in a clustered WebShere Portal v7.0 environment.
C. VMware can be used in a non-clustered WebSphere Portal v7.0 environment.
D. VMware and WebSphere Portal v7.0 allow mass-replication of identical operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which option best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content
mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content
mapping from the
portal page where the content is rendered, and then delete the template library used to
create the wiki.
D. Statements A, B, and C are valid.
E. Only Statement A and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by
administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is
rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a portal farm.?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production
environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.1 TSM systems enable the "Monitoring DHCP settings" strategy, end users will be forced to only
use DHCP to obtain an IP address automatically.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 VPN by business use classification does not include which of the following?
A. Access VPN
B. Intranet VPN
C. Internet VPN
D. Extranet VPN
Answer: C

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NO.3 VPN tunneling technology is to achieve data encryption algorithm (such as DES, 3DES)
transmission in the network will not be intercepted.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 Microsoft patch does not include what level?
A. Key
B. Serious
C. Important
D. Medium
Answer: D

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NO.5 Here on the NAS-Initialized the L2TP VPN, correct statement are: (Choose three)
A. Remote users via PSTN / ISDN access NAS (LAC), LAC determine whether the L2TP users.
B. L2TP remote user to user,LAC to the LNS initiates channel connection establishment request.
C. LNS assigns a private IP address for remote dial-up users
D. Validation of remote dial-up users can only be done at the LNS
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 GRE VPN itself does not have to provide data integrity verification and confidentiality of
transmission capacity.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 USG (Eudemon) firewall nat configuration is as follows: #
nat address-group 1 10.1.1.5 10.1.1.10
nat server 1 protocol tcp global 1.1.1.1 ftp inside 10.1.1.2 ftp # nat-policy interzone dmz untrust
inbound
policy 0
action source-nat
policy destination 1.1.1.1 0
address-group 1 #
The following statement is correct that:
A. NAT outbound configuration,network users to access the external network into an address in the
address pool 10.1.1.5 10.1.1.10
B. untrust host access nat server 1.1.1.1, destination address into 10.1.1.2, the original address
unchanged
C. Built- domain nat,DMZ host access nat server 1.1.1.1, destination address into 10.1.1.2, the
source address into the address pool 1
D. NAT inbound configuration,untrust host access nat server 1.1.1.1, destination address into
Answer: D

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NO.8 Note that when the Clear to clear ISAKMP SA SA Stage 1, and then remove IPSEC SA Phase 2.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions and Services
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Exam Code: HP2-T23
Exam Name: Supporting Industry Standard Server Solutions
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NO.1 You cannot get to the network from any of the server blades in a c7000 enclosure with 10GbE
Pass-Thru modules.
What should you verify first for proper connectivity to the network?
A. Correct SFPs are installed
B. External switch supports at least Gigabit speed
C. Interconnect link between the Pass-Thru modules
D. External switch set to half duplex
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which HP utility can patch a ProLiant server with a release set made up of drivers, firmware,
and software that have been tested together?
A. HP Smart Update Firmware DVD
B. HP Version Control Update (VCU)
C. Integrated Lights Out (iLO)
D. Service Pack for ProLiant (SPP)
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer lost the password information for the Onboard Administrator of a C7000 enclosure
and asks you to restore administrator access.
How should you do this?
A. Connect to the serial port of the Onboard Administrator and press the reset button to restore the
default password.
B. Use HP SUM in Recovery mode.
C. Run the Onboard Administrator Recover option from one of the server blades in the enclosure.
D. Run Remote Insight Board Command Language (RIBCL) from the Insight Display.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h20566.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.PAGE/public/kb/docDisplay/?sp
4t
s.oid=1844065&spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay&spf_p.prp_kbDocDisplay=wsrpnavigationalState%3DdocI
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eTok=com.vignette.cac hetoken&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken

NO.4 What is the name of the HP agent that enables a customer to manage HP software that is
stored in a user-defined repository?
A. Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
B. Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
C. Version Control Agent
D. Data Collection Reports
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/doc
Display/resource.process/?spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDisplay=docDisplay
ResURL&javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kbDocDisplay=wsrpresour
ceState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c031689542%257CdocLocale%253Den_US&javax.portlet.endCach
eTok=com.vignette.cachetoken(page 20, see HP version control repository manager)

NO.5 Which RAID level is known as Advance Data Guarding (ADG)?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h50146.www5.hp.com/products/storage/whitepaper/pdfs/c00386950.pdf

NO.6 What happens if you lose or misplace a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) key?
A. The system requests the Administrator password.
B. The system enters diagnostic mode.
C. The system will not boot.
D. Data loss might occur.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statements are correct about HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) 7.0 Agentless
Management? (Select two.)
A. HP SIM communicates with the CPU and collects essential data for the operating system.
B. Agentless Managements provided by the CPU.
C. HP SIM communicates with the iLO Management Engine to collect hardware data.
D. The Agentless Management Service runs on the host to provide software information directly to
the iLO Management Engine.
Answer: C,D

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03306157 /c03306157.p
d f(page 2)

NO.8 Which statements are correct about HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) 7.0 Agentless
Management? (Select two.)
A. HP SIM communicates with the CPU and collects essential data for the operating system.
B. Agentless Management is provided by the CPU.
C. HP SIM communicates with the iLO Management Engine to collect hardware data.
D. The Agentless Management Service runs on the host to provide software information directly to
the iLO Management Engine.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: HP2-B104
Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Assessment and Design - Exam
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NO.1 What makes HP Converged Cloud uniquely positioned?
A. Best in class people, processes, and technology
B. Best in class experience, point solutions, and private cloud offerings
C. Best in class products, private cloud, closed architecture, and experience
D. Best in class technology, hybrid delivery, open/extensible/architecture, and experience
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which major trend does HP believe is driving cloud adoption?
A. CIO scorecards and KPIs
B. Application transformation and agile delivery of services
C. Outsourced service management and quality assurance
D. Application portfolio consolidation
Answer: B

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NO.3 According to HP , what are the needs of business and government today? (Select three)
A. Accelerating cost
B. Enhancing agility
C. Improving financial management
D. Leveraging diversification
E. improving customization
F. Speeding innovation
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.4 What is a common path to Converged Cloud?
A. Cloud governance
B. Cloud infrastructure
C. Cloud-enabled datacenter
D. Cloud performance dashboards
Answer: B

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NO.5 HP Converged Cloud combines private, managed, and public cloud environments with
traditional IT infrastructure to deliver an experience built around which focused set of principles?
A. Performance, availability, and quality
B. Choice, confidence, and consistency
C. Operations, execution, and delivery
D. provide unparalleled choice, confidence in the solution and provide consistency
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h10124.www1.hp.com/campaigns/enterprise/converged-cloud/us/en/ 4AA40797E
NW.pdf(page 3, see announcing HP converged cloud)

NO.6 For organizations just starting to embrace cloud, what are the challenges of the evolving
current state of hybrid delivery? (Select two.)
A. Reduced business insight
B. Improved time to market
C. Different management and securityframework
D. Reduced complexity
E. Disparate architectures
Answer: C,E

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Reference:http://h10124.www1.hp.com/campaigns/enterprise/converged-cloud/us/en/ 4AA40797E
NW.pdf(page 2, see the promise of cloud services, first para, second last sentence)

NO.7 For organizations embracing cloud services as a business strategy and key delivery model that
can increase their ability to tackle organizational challenges, what impact does this have on IT?
A. IT Governance anywhere
B. Infrastructure anywhere, Applications anywhere, information anywhere, services anywhere
C. Security anywhere, Governance anywhere
D. Applications anywhere, Operations anywhere
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is HP Converged Cloud comprised of?
A. Converged Infrastructure as a Service, Converged Management and Security, and Converged
Information
B. Converged Services. Converged Management and Security, and Converged Information
C. Solutions that include premise components
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NO.1 What is a common reason why HP loses thin client sales opportunities?
A. Failure to understand customer needs
B. Poorly managed evaluation process that fails to prove the concept
C. Fear of the competition
D. Competitor has the lead
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which series of HP thin clients is only designated for use with PC over IP?
A. HP zero clients
B. HP ProLiant thin clients
C. HP flexible thin clients
D. HP smart zero clients
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.channelinsider.com/c/a/Reviews/Thin-Client-Technology-From-Teradici-Enha
nces-DLP-Security-With-Low-Cost-PC-over-IP-Solution-759844 /

NO.3 Which feature differentiates HP t820 thin clients from HP t620 thin clients?
A. Intel Core i5-4570S processor
B. Built with the environment in mind
C. OS-dependent protocol
D. Enterprise-class 802.11 a/b/g/n Wi-Fi with dual internal antennas
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which operating system feature applies to HP mt41 Mobile Thin Clients?
A. Configuration dependent operating system
B. No on board operating system
C. Microsoft WES 7E operating system
D. Optional operating system
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the difference between server-based computing and virtual-desktop infrastructure?
A. Virtual desktop infrastructure is sharing one desktop computer with one or more thin clients,
while server based computing is sharing one or more desktop computers with one or more servers.
B. Virtual desktop infrastructure is a system where each desktop PC is rack mounted and managed
in one area while server-based computing enables management of local desktop computers via the
server.
C. Virtual desktop infrastructure hosts computer images for remote computing while server-based
computing is an environment where computing occurs directly on the server and the user interface
is accessed remotely.
D. Virtual desktop infrastructure and server-based computing are two different terms for the same
network environment.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.brianmadden.com/blogs/brianmadden/archive/ 2007 / 03 /14 /when-to-use-vdi
when-to-use-server-based-computing-and-how-the-citrix-ardence-dynamic-desktop-fits-into-allthis.
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NO.6 What type of user is someone who needs a PC-like experience, heavy performance, and 3D
graphics for use in data intensive applications?
A. Knowledge worker
B. Task worker
C. Power and flexible user
D. Office worker
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which free HP Thin Client manageability solution is a centralized, secure, enterprise class, and
comprehensive management solution?
A. HP ThinState
B. HP Power Assistant
C. HP Device Manager
D. HP Easy Tools
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which client characteristics can be opportunities for client virtualization? (Select two.)
A. insistent on maintaining use of Windows XP for client computers
B. interest in high-power, graphics-intensive processors
C. desire to reduce desk-side IT support
D. loyal to Citrix over VMware as a client virtualization option a potential security breach resulting
from stolen data
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Why should a customer rethink the idea of using PCs in place of thin clients in a client
virtualization environment?
A. PCs are difficult to secure and require more manageability.
B. PCs increase network traffic, causing more time and cost in management
C. PCs are more secure, more agile, and adaptable to the workforce.
D. Thin clients cost more than PCs. but provide more functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statements are benefits of the HP Client Virtualization solution? (Select two.)
A. Faster and more efficient network communications.
B. Lower acquisition costs
C. More computing power for locally installed client office applications
D. Simplified maintenance and support
E. More workplace flexibility
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 What is important to point out when presenting HP t410 Smart Zero Clients to customers?
A. Benefits of the TERA2321 PCoIP processor
B. Benefits of the Texas Instruments ARM Cortex processor
C. Benefits of the Man/ell ARM Armada 510 processor with integrated graphics
D. Its small size and large data storage capacity
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement is an indicator that the customer is shopping for a thin client rather than a
solution?
A. The customer is deciding on an architecture.
B. The customer is interested in hardware specifications, protocol support, and cost.
C. The customer is a year or more away from a large-scale production deployment.
D. The customer is considering how to integrate with the entire IT infrastructure: secure data, data
center space, and application support
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which operating system can lock down the thin client on the first startup and require the user
to configure the password on the first use?
A. HP TeemTalk
B. HP ThinState
C. HP Smart Zero Core
D. HP Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.8 How can a client virtualization solution reduce the occurrence of unused software licenses in a
network environment?
A. It allows users to share individual software licenses over the network.
B. It allows IT to obtain mass software licenses for the standard image to save on individual licensing
needs.
C. It allows IT to manage and control software installed on each separate client image so that each
user has only the required software.
D. It reduces the need for individual users to access specific applications because they can use the
functionality of community software on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which additional OSPF states does an OSPF router go through when forming an adjacency
with a DR or BDR that it does not go through with a DROTHER? (Select three.)
A. init state
B. down state
C. two-way state
D. full state
E. loading state
F. exchange state
Answer: D,E,F

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C. Support of copper and fiber cabling
D. Frame sizes
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statements are correct about HP StoreOnce Backup? (Select two.)
A. It is a modular, branch-in-a-box solution that reduces the cost of remote installations.
B. It provides high-speed data backup using a 3U rack enclosure with multiple tape arrays.
C. It provides long term data retention using tape backup libraries with LTO-6 technology.
D. It reduces bandwidth and storage media use with deduplication technology.
E. It transfers only unique data across the network and stores it on the remote backup devices.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 A network administrator views this message on the console of an HP Comware switch:
What is the significance of this message?
A. The switch has shared routes with the DR
B. The switch has become the BDR
C. The switch has received routes from a DROTHER
D. The switch has become the DR
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which FlexArchitecture component uses Virtual Connect in blade server systems?
A. FlexFabric
B. FlexDataCenter
C. FlexCampus
D. FlexManagement
Answer: A

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Reference: http://h18004.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13652_div/13652_div.pdf

NO.6 Which Software-Defined Network (SDN) layer includes HP Provision and HP Comware
switches?
A. application
B. operational
C. control
D. infrastructure
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/solutions/technology/sdn/index.aspx#.Uiryn
GQS2Qk (refer to the diagram) Which modules provide connectivity for blade servers installed in the
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NO.7 A. Virtual Connect module
B. HP 6120XG module
C. 8200zl module
D. MSR900 module
E. 5830AF module
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which FlexArchitecture modules would MPLS and DSL connections commonly be
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A. FlexCampus
B. FlexRemote
C. FlexWAN
D. FlexDataCenter
E. FlexBranch
Answer: A,E

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in Transforming Service Delivery?
A. upgrades a CloudSystem Enterprise system to a CloudSystem Matrix environment
B. helps you visualize, optimize, and plan performance in virtualized and cloud environments
C. provides a self-service portal in order to deliver services from multiple providers
D. enables comprehensive patching of physical and virtual farms
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is true about the HP Server Automation Premium Edition solution?
A. provides automatic tracking of storage utilization at array, switch, volume, and application level
B. consolidates and correlates server fault and performance events across the entire physical and
virtual IT infrastructure
C. integrates server monitoring and universal log management, further reducing the time to
troubleshoot tough-to-diagnose problems
D. offers a lower-cost solution that simplifies the setup and reduces the time needed to manage the
physical and virtual servers in a data center
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6486ENW.pdf(page 1, executive
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NO.3 Which specific challenge is faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software
Cloud Service Automation solution?
A. inability to trace real user transactions across application tiers to speed resolution time
B. procurement by the line-of-business of external Public Cloud services that are not directly under
the control of corporate IT
C. no system to track storage utilization at array, switch, volume, and application level
D. need to fix vulnerabilities on network devices using an integrated security alert service
Answer: D

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B. system administrator
C. CTO
D. CSO
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Task Automation challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by HP Server
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A. How can I improve time-to-value in the provisioning of application development environments?
B. How can I pre-empt problems before they cause an outage?
C. How do I guarantee my service desk tickets are prioritized?
D. How can I distribute security updates (patches) in my environment in an agile and reliable
manner?
E. How can I better monitor security breaches?
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 What is the correct value proposition for the HP Software Database and Middleware
Automation solution?
A. monitors administrative tasks such as provisioning, compliance, patching, and release
management associated with databases and application servers
B. reduces downtime and mean time to repair (MTTR) through root-cause analysis that maintains
accuracy for databases and application servers
C. prevents unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
D. delivers industry-standard best practices to address challenges around compliance, middleware,
and database patching, and code release
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6274ENW.pdf(page 3, first para)

NO.7 Which HP Cloud Service Automation value best resonates with the persona involved in
Transforming Service Delivery?
A. offers a repeatable,scalable, automatable way to manage technical policy and reusable services
B. consolidates and correlates fault and performance events across the entire physical and virtual IT
infrastructure
C. provides an extensible, enterprise-grade, service lifecycle management system
D. automates tasks and processes in the data center using workflows that help IT teams execute
change with greater speed, quality, reliability, and consistency
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are in front of a customer, and the discussion centers around Process Orchestration. The
customer says that they do not have the budget to purchase more software.
What is the best way to respond to this objection?
A. Is there anyone else in the organization that is able to make that type of buying decision?
B. Can you afford to continue with existing inefficiencies and broken processes?
C. We can help you offset that cost by reducing head-count
D. We can reduce your OPEX by making your IT staff more efficient in managing routine day-to-day
tasks.
Answer: B

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